1.5.0.0.1.a.1 G10 ALL Notification to the NTSB is required when there has been substantial damage A. which requires repairs to landing gear. B. to an engine caused by engine failure in flight. C. which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics. C 1.5.0.0.2.a.1 G11 ALL NTSB Part 830 requires an immediate notification as a result of which incident? A. Engine failure for any reason during flight. B. Damage to the landing gear as a result of a hard landing. C. Any required flight crewmember being unable to perform flight duties because of illness. C 1.5.0.0.3.a.1 G11 ALL Which incident would require that the nearest NTSB field office be notified immediately? A. In-flight fire. B. Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch. C. Fire of the primary aircraft while hangered which results in damage to other property of more than $50,000. A 1.5.0.0.4.a.1 G11 ALL While taxiing for takeoff, a small fire burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action would be required to comply with NTSB Part 830? A. No notification or report is required. B. A report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours. C. An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office. A 1.5.0.0.5.a.1 G11 ALL During flight a fire which was extinguished burned the insulation from a transceiver wire. What action is required by regulations? A. No notification or report is required. B. Report must be filed with the avionics inspector at the nearest FAA field office within 48 hours. C. An immediate notification by the operator of the aircraft to the nearest NTSB field office. C 1.5.0.0.6.a.1 G11 ALL When should notification of an aircraft accident be made to the NTSB if there was substantial damage and no injuries? A. Immediately. B. Within 10 days. C. Within 30 days. A 1.5.0.0.7.a.1 G13 ALL The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB A. within 7 days. B. within 10 days. C. only if requested to do so. C 1.5.0.0.8.a.1 G13 ALL Within how many days of an accident is an accident report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office? A. 2 days. B. 7 days. C. 10 days. C 1.5.0.0.9.a.1 A01 ALL What designated airspace associated with an airport becomes inactive when the control tower at that airport is not in operation? A. Class D, which then becomes Class C. B. Class D, which then becomes Class E. C. Class B. B 1.5.0.1.0.a.1 A01 ALL Regulations which refer to commercial operators relate to that person who A. is the owner of a small scheduled airline. B. for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an air carrier. C. for compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier. C 1.5.0.1.1.a.1 A01 ALL Regulations which refer to operate relate to that person who A. acts as pilot in command of the aircraft. B. is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. C. causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use. C 1.5.0.1.2.a.1 A01 ALL Regulations which refer to the operational control of a flight are in relation to A. the specific duties of any required crewmember. B. acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls. C. exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight. C 1.5.0.1.3.a.1 A02 AIR,GLI Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration? A. VS. B. VS1. C. VSO. B 1.5.0.1.4.a.1 A02 AIR,GLI Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable? A. VS. B. VS1. C. VSO. A 1.5.0.1.5.a.1 A02 AIR,GLI FAR Part 1 defines VF as A. design flap speed. B. flap operating speed. C. maximum flap extended speed. A 1.5.0.1.6.a.1 A02 AIR FAR Part 1 defines VLE as A. maximum landing gear extended speed. B. maximum landing gear operating speed. C. maximum leading edge flaps extended speed. A 1.5.0.1.7.a.1 A10 AIR If the operational category of an airplane is listed as utility, it would mean that this airplane could be operated in which of the following maneuvers? A. Limited acrobatics, excluding spins. B. Limited acrobatics, including spins. C. Any maneuver except acrobatics or spins. B 1.5.0.1.8.a.1 A20 ALL Commercial pilots are required to have a current and appropriate pilot certificate in their personal possession when A. piloting for hire only. B. carrying passengers only. C. acting as pilot in command. C 1.5.0.1.9.a.1 A20 AIR Which of the following is considered aircraft class ratings? A. Transport, normal, utility, and acrobatic. B. Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. C. Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea. C 1.5.0.2.0.a.1 A20 ALL Does a commercial pilot certificate have a specific expiration date? A. No, it is issued without an expiration date. B. Yes, it expires at the end of the 24th month after the month in which it was issued. C. No, but commercial privileges expire if a flight review is not satisfactorily completed each 12 months. A 1.5.0.2.1.a.1 A20 AIR,RTC,LTA A second-class medical certificate issued to a commercial pilot on April 10, this year, permits the pilot to exercise which of the following privileges? A. Commercial pilot privileges through April 30, next year. B. Commercial pilot privileges through April 10, 2 years later. C. Private pilot privileges through, but not after, March 31, next year. A 1.5.0.2.2.a.1 A20 AIR,RTC When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown? A. All solo flights. B. Flight tests given by the FAA. C. Flights for compensation or hire. C 1.5.0.2.3.a.1 A20 AIR Unless otherwise authorized, the pilot in command is required to hold a type rating when operating any A. aircraft that is certificated for more than one pilot. B. aircraft of more than 12,500 pounds maximum certificated takeoff weight. C. multiengine aircraft having a gross weight of more than 6,000 pounds. B 1.5.0.2.4.a.1 A20 AIR To act as pilot in command of an airplane that is equipped with a retractable landing gear, if no pilot-in-command time in such an airplane was logged prior to November 1, 1973, a person is required to A. hold a multiengine airplane class rating. B. make at least six takeoffs and landings in such an airplane within the preceding 6 months. C. receive flight instruction in such an airplane and obtain a logbook endorsement of competency. C 1.5.0.2.5.a.1 A20 AIR,RTC What flight time may a pilot log as second in command? A. All flight time while acting as second in command in aircraft requiring more than one pilot. B. Only that flight time during which the second in command is the sole manipulator of the controls. C. All flight time while acting as second in command regardless of aircraft crew requirements. A 1.5.0.2.6.a.1 A20 ALL What flight time must be shown, in a reliable record, by a pilot exercising the privileges of a commercial certificate? A. Flight time showing aeronautical training and experience to meet requirements for a certificate or rating. B. All flight time flown for compensation or hire. C. Only flight time for compensation or hire with passengers aboard which is necessary to meet the recent flight experience requirements. A 1.5.0.2.7.a.1 A20 ALL If a pilot does not meet the recency of experience requirements for night flight and official sunset is 1800 CST, the latest time passengers should be carried is A. 1759 CST. B. 1829 CST. C. 1859 CST. C 1.5.0.2.8.a.1 A20 ALL Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in A. any category aircraft. B. the same category and class of aircraft to be used. C. the same category, class, and type of aircraft to be used. B 1.5.0.2.9.a.1 A20 RTC To act as pilot in command of a gyroplane carrying passengers, what must the pilot do in that gyroplane to meet recent daytime flight experience requirements? A. Make 9 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 30 days. B. Make 3 takeoffs and landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days. C. Make 3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days. C 1.5.0.3.0.a.1 A20 LTA No pilot may act as pilot in command of an airship under IFR nor in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the past 6 months, completed at least A. 3 instrument approaches and logged 3 hours. B. 6 instrument flights under actual IFR conditions. C. 6 instrument approaches and logged 6 hours instrument time, or passed an instrument competency check in an airship. C 1.5.0.3.1.a.1 A20 ALL To act as pilot in command of an aircraft under FAR Part 91, a commercial pilot must have satisfactorily accomplished a flight review or completed a proficiency check within the preceding A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 24 months. C 1.5.0.3.2.a.1 A20 ALL Pilots who change their permanent mailing address and fail to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of this change, are entitled to exercise the privileges of their pilot certificate for a period of A. 30 days. B. 60 days. C. 90 days. A 1.5.0.3.3.a.1 A21 AIR,GLI To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, a certificated airplane pilot is required to have A. a logbook record of having made at least 3 flights as sole manipulator of the controls of a glider being towed by an airplane. B. a logbook endorsement for receipt of ground and flight instruction in gliders and familiarity with techniques and procedures for glider towing. C. at least a private pilot certificate with a glider rating and made and logged at least 3 flights as pilot or observer in a glider being towed by an airplane. B 1.5.0.3.4.a.1 A21 AIR,GLI To act as pilot in command of an airplane towing a glider, the tow pilot is required to have a pilot certificate and A. a glider rating, and pass a written test on the techniques and procedures essential for safe towing of gliders. B. a logbook record of having made at least 3 flights in a glider, and be familiar with the techniques and procedures essential for safe towing of gliders. C. have received and logged ground and flight instruction in gliders, and be familiar with the techniques and procedures essential for safe towing of gliders. C 1.5.0.3.5.a.1 A22 GLI,LTA What is the minimum age requirement for a person to be issued a student pilot certificate limited to gliders or free balloons? A. 14 years of age. B. 15 years of age. C. 16 years of age. A 1.5.0.3.6.a.1 A22 LTA To operate a free balloon in solo flight, a student pilot must have a logbook endorsement of competence by an authorized instructor within the preceding A. 30 days. B. 60 days. C. 90 days. C 1.5.0.3.7.a.1 A24 LTA To exercise the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with a lighter-than-air category, free balloon class rating, the minimum medical requirement is a A. Second-class medical certificate when carrying passengers for hire. B. statement by the pilot certifying he/she has no known medical deficiency that would make him/her unable to act as pilot. C. statement from any designated medical examiner certifying the pilot has no medical deficiencies. B 1.5.0.3.8.a.1 A24 GLI The medical requirements to exercise the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with a glider rating is at least a A. valid second-class medical certificate. B. medical statement from a designated medical examiner on file with the nearest FAA district office. C. statement by the pilot certifying he/she has no known medical deficiency that makes him/her unable to pilot a glider. C 1.5.0.3.9.a.1 A24 AIR What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating? The carrying of passengers A. or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM. B. for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights. C. for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited. C 1.5.0.4.0.a.1 A26 LTA A commercial pilot who gives flight instruction in lighter-than-air category aircraft must keep a record of such instruction for a period of A. 1 year. B. 2 years. C. 3 years. C 1.5.0.4.1.a.1 A26 LTA What is the maximum amount of flight instruction an authorized instructor may give in any 24 consecutive hours? A. 4 hours. B. 6 hours. C. 8 hours. C 1.5.0.4.2.a.1 A26 LTA A student pilot may not operate a balloon in initial solo flight unless that pilot has A. received a minimum of 5 hours of dual instruction in a balloon. B. a valid student pilot certificate and logbook endorsed by an authorized flight instructor. C. made at least 10 free balloon flights under the supervision of an authorized instructor. B 1.5.0.4.3.a.1 A60 ALL Excluding Hawaii, the vertical limits of the Federal Low Altitude airways extend from A. 700 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. B. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet MSL. C. 1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 14,500 feet MSL. B 1.5.0.4.4.a.1 A60 ALL One of the major differences between Class D airspace and Class E airspace is that Class D airspace A. is located at tower-controlled airports and Class E airspace is at uncontrolled airports. B. always begins at 700 feet AGL while Class E always begins at 1,200 feet above the surface. C. begins at the surface, while Class E always begins at an altitude of 700 feet or 1,200 feet above the surface. A 1.5.0.4.5.a.1 A60 ALL The Continental Control Area A. does not exist anymore. B. extends upward from 10,000 feet MSL. C. extends upward from 14,500 feet MSL. A 1.5.0.4.6.a.1 A60 ALL Within the contiguous U.S., the vertical limit of Class D airspace normally extends from the surface upward to A. infinity. B. but not including the base of Class A airspace. C. 2,500 feet AGL or indicated within a square depicted within that airspace on aeronautical charts. C 1.5.0.4.7.a.1 A60 ALL Which is true regarding Class E airspace? A. The basic VFR minimums are greater than those associated Class D airspace. B. Class E airspace may start at the surface, but usually begins at an altitude of 700 feet or 1,200 feet above the surface. C. Class E airspace begins at the surface and extend upward to Flight Level 600. B 1.5.0.4.8.a.1 B07 LTA Which person is directly responsible for the prelaunch briefing of passengers for a balloon flight? A. Crew chief. B. Safety officer. C. Pilot in command. C 1.5.0.4.9.a.1 B07 ALL The required preflight action relative to alternatives available, if the planned flight cannot be completed, is applicable to A. IFR flights only. B. any flight not in the vicinity of an airport. C. any flight conducted for hire or compensation. B 1.5.0.5.0.a.1 B07 ALL Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must A. be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport. B. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport. C. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed. C 1.5.0.5.1.a.1 B07 AIR,RTC,LTA Required flight crewmembers' seatbelts must be fastened A. only during takeoff and landing. B. while the crewmembers are at their stations. C. only during takeoff and landing when passengers are aboard the aircraft. B 1.5.0.5.2.a.1 B07 ALL The use of seatbelts, with certain exceptions, during takeoffs and landings is A. required for all occupants. B. required during commercial operations only. C. a good operating practice, but not required by regulations. A 1.5.0.5.3.a.1 B07 GLI GIVEN: Glider's maximum certificated operating weight 1,140 lb Towline breaking strength 3,050 lb Which meets the requirement for one of the safety links? A breaking strength of A. 812 pounds installed where the towline is attached to the towplane. B. 920 pounds installed where the towline is attached to the glider. C. 2,300 pounds installed where the towline is attached to the glider. B 1.5.0.5.4.a.1 B07 GLI During aerotow of a glider that weighs 940 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope? A. 752 pounds. B. 1,500 pounds. C. 2,000 pounds. C 1.5.0.5.5.a.1 B07 AIR Which is required to operate an aircraft towing an advertising banner? A. Approval from ATC to operate in Class E airspace. B. A certificate of waiver issued by the Administrator. C. A safety link at each end of the towline which has a breaking strength not less than 80 percent of the aircraft's gross weight. B 1.5.0.5.6.a.1 B07 ALL Portable electronic devices which may cause interference with the navigation or communication system may not be operated on aircraft being flown A. along Federal airways. B. within the U.S. C. in commercial operations. C 1.5.0.5.7.a.1 B07 LTA The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on airships that are being operated under A. IFR. B. VFR. C. DVFR. A 1.5.0.5.8.a.1 B07 RTC To begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR, there must be enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and, assuming normal cruise speed, to fly thereafter for at least A. 20 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 45 minutes. A 1.5.0.5.9.a.1 B07 AIR,RTC,LTA If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for A. 30 minutes at slow cruising speed. B. 45 minutes at normal cruising speed. C. 1 hour at normal cruising speed. B 1.5.0.6.0.a.1 B07 AIR,RTC A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for A. Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas. B. all airspace of the 48 contiguous U.S. and the District of Columbia at and above 10,000 feet MSL (including airspace at and below 2,500 feet above the surface). C. both answer A and B. A 1.5.0.6.1.a.1 B07 AIR,RTC In the contiguous U.S., excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above A. 10,000 feet MSL. B. 12,500 feet MSL. C. 14,500 feet MSL. A 1.5.0.6.2.a.1 B07 AIR,LTA,RTC What is the maximum tolerance (+ or -) allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT? A. 4°. B. 6°. C. 8°. A 1.5.0.6.3.a.1 B07 ALL In accordance with FAR Part 91, supplemental oxygen must be used by the required minimum flightcrew for that time exceeding 30 minutes while at cabin pressure altitudes of A. 10,500 feet MSL up to and including 12,500 feet MSL. B. 12,000 feet MSL up to and including 18,000 feet MSL. C. 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL. C 1.5.0.6.4.a.1 B07 ALL What are the oxygen requirements when operating above 15,000 feet MSL? A. Oxygen must be available for the flightcrew. B. Oxygen is not required at any altitude in a free balloon. C. The flightcrew must use and passengers must be provided oxygen. C 1.5.0.6.5.a.1 B07 AIR,RTC,GLI Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights? A. Anticollision light system. B. Gyroscopic direction indicator. C. Gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator. A 1.5.0.6.6.a.1 B07 AIR Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights? A. Flashlight with red lens if the flight is for hire. B. A landing light if the flight is for hire. C. Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure. B 1.5.0.6.7.a.1 B07 AIR Approved flotation gear, readily available to each occupant, is required on each aircraft if it is being flown for hire over water, A. in amphibious aircraft beyond 50 NM from shore. B. beyond power-off gliding distance from shore. C. regardless of the distance flown from shore. B 1.5.0.6.8.a.1 B07 RTC Which is true with respect to operating limitations of a ``restricted'' category helicopter? A. A restricted category helicopter is limited to an operating radius of 25 miles from its home base. B. A pilot of a restricted category helicopter is required to hold a commercial pilot certificate. C. No person may operate a restricted category helicopter carrying property or passengers for compensation or hire. C 1.5.0.6.9.a.1 B07 AIR The carriage of passengers for hire by a commercial pilot is A. not authorized in utility category aircraft. B. not authorized in limited category aircraft. C. authorized in restricted category aircraft. B 1.5.0.7.0.a.1 B07 AIR,RTC The maximum cumulative time that an emergency locator transmitter may be operated before the rechargeable battery must be recharged is A. 30 minutes. B. 45 minutes. C. 60 minutes. C 1.5.0.7.1.a.1 B07 AIR No person may operate a large civil U.S. aircraft which is subject to a lease, unless the lessee has mailed a copy of the lease to the FAA Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center within how many hours of its execution? A. 24. B. 48. C. 72. A 1.5.0.7.2.a.1 B08 RTC What transponder equipment is required for helicopter operations within Class B airspace? A transponder A. with 4096 code and Mode C capability. B. is required for helicopter operations when visibility is less than 1 mile. C. with 4096 code capability is required except when operating at or below 1,000 feet AGL under the terms of a letter of agreement. A 1.5.0.7.3.a.1 B08 ALL Which is true with respect to formation flights? Formation flights are A. authorized when carrying passengers for hire with prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in the formation. B. not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM. C. not authorized when carrying passengers for hire. C 1.5.0.7.4.a.1 B08 AIR,RTC While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why? A. The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane. B. The helicopter, because helicopters have the right-of-way over airplanes. C. The airplane, because airplanes have the right-of-way over helicopters. A 1.5.0.7.5.a.1 B08 ALL Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right-of-way belongs to the aircraft A. at the higher altitude. B. at the lower altitude, but the pilot shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake the other aircraft. C. that is more maneuverable, and that aircraft may, with caution, move in front of or overtake the other aircraft. B 1.5.0.7.6.a.1 B08 AIR,RTC Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the right-of-way? A. Airplane A; the pilot should alter course to the right to pass. B. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right. C. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the left. B 1.5.0.7.7.a.1 B08 AIR What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed in the airspace underlying Class B airspace? A. 156 knots. B. 200 knots. C. 230 knots. B 1.5.0.7.8.a.1 B08 AIR Unless otherwise authorized or required by ATC, the maximum indicated airspeed permitted when at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NM of the primary airport of a Class C, or D airspace is A. 180 knots. B. 200 knots. C. 230 knots. X/B 1.5.0.7.9.a.1 B08 AIR,GLI What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight? A. 1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles. B. 2,000 feet MSL and 2 miles. C. 3,000 feet AGL and 1 mile. A 1.5.0.8.0.a.1 B08 ALL If not equipped with required position lights, an aircraft must terminate flight A. at sunset. B. 30 minutes after sunset. C. 1 hour after sunset. A 1.5.0.8.1.a.1 B08 LTA If a free balloon is not equipped for night flight and official sunset is 1730 EST, the latest a pilot may operate that balloon and not violate regulations is A. 1629 EST. B. 1729 EST. C. 1759 EST. B 1.5.0.8.2.a.1 B08 ALL Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace? A. Area navigation equipment is required. B. Flight under VFR is not authorized unless the pilot in command is instrument rated. C. Solo student pilot operations are allowed if certain conditions are satisfied. C 1.5.0.8.3.a.1 B08 ALL The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 miles beginning at an altitude of A. 14,500 feet MSL. B. 10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL. C. 10,000 feet MSL regardless of height above ground. B 1.5.0.8.4.a.1 B08 GLI When flying a glider above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, what minimum flight visibility is required? A. 3 NM. B. 5 SM. C. 7 SM. B 1.5.0.8.5.a.1 B08 ALL What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace? A. 1 mile visibility; clear of clouds. B. 3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below. C. 5 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 1,000 feet below. B 1.5.0.8.6.a.1 B08 RTC Which minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a day VFR helicopter flight in Class G airspace at 3,500 feet MSL over terrain with an elevation of 1,900 feet MSL? A. Visibility-3 miles; distance from clouds-1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 1 mile horizontally. B. Visibility-3 miles; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. C. Visibility-1 mile; distance from clouds-500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally. C 1.5.0.8.7.a.1 B08 RTC Basic VFR weather minimums require at least what visibility for operating a helicopter within Class D airspace? A. 1 mile. B. 2 miles. C. 3 miles. C 1.5.0.8.8.a.1 B08 AIR When operating an airplane for the purpose of landing or takeoff within Class D under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required? A. Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. B. 500 feet beneath clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM. C. Remain clear of clouds, and the flight visibility must be at least 1 SM. A 1.5.0.8.9.a.1 B08 AIR At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings under special VFR are A. not authorized. B. authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM. C. authorized only if the ground visibility is observed to be at least 3 SM. B 1.5.0.9.0.a.1 B08 AIR To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required? A. The pilot must hold an instrument pilot rating, but the airplane need not be equipped for instrument flight, as long as the weather will remain at or above SVFR minimums. B. The Class D airspace must be specifically designated as a night SVFR area. C. The pilot must hold an instrument pilot rating and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight. C 1.5.0.9.1.a.1 B08 AIR,RTC,LTA VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying A. at 3,000 feet or more AGL; based on true course. B. more than 3,000 feet AGL; based on magnetic course. C. at 3,000 feet or more above MSL; based on magnetic heading. B 1.5.0.9.2.a.1 B08 ALL Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is A. 3,000 feet over all terrain. B. 3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere. C. 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere. C 1.5.0.9.3.a.1 B13 ALL Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in an airworthy condition? A. The lead mechanic responsible for that aircraft. B. Pilot in command. C. Operator or owner of the aircraft. C 1.5.0.9.4.a.1 B13 ALL Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive is the responsibility of the A. pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic assigned to that aircraft. B. pilot in command of that aircraft. C. owner or operator of that aircraft. C 1.5.0.9.5.a.1 B13 ALL After an annual inspection has been completed and the aircraft has been returned to service, an appropriate notation should be made A. on the airworthiness certificate. B. in the aircraft maintenance records. C. in the FAA-approved flight manual. B 1.5.0.9.6.a.1 B13 ALL The validity of the airworthiness certificate is maintained by A. performance of an annual inspection. B. performance of an annual inspection and a 100-hour inspection prior to their expiration date. C. an appropriate return to service statement in the aircraft maintenance records upon the completion of required inspections and maintenance. C 1.5.0.9.7.a.1 B13 ALL If an aircraft's operation in flight was substantially affected by an alteration or repair, the aircraft documents must show that it was test flown and approved for return to service by an appropriately-rated pilot prior to being operated A. by any private pilot. B. with passengers aboard. C. for compensation or hire. B 1.5.0.9.8.a.1 B13 ALL Which is correct concerning preventive maintenance, when accomplished by a pilot? A. A record of preventive maintenance is not required. B. A record of preventive maintenance must be entered in the maintenance records. C. Records of preventive maintenance must be entered in the FAA-approved flight B 1.5.0.9.9.a.1 B13 ALL An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in service. Under which condition, if any, may that aircraft be operated beyond 100 hours without a new inspection? A. The aircraft may be flown for any flight as long as the time in service has not exceeded 110 hours. B. The aircraft may be dispatched for a flight of any duration as long as 100 hours has not been exceeded at the time it departs. C. The 100-hour limitation may be exceeded by not more than 10 hours if necessary to reach a place at which the inspection can be done. C 1.5.1.0.0.a.1 B13 ALL Which is true concerning required maintenance inspections? A. A 100-hour inspection may be substituted for an annual inspection. B. An annual inspection may be substituted for a 100-hour inspection. C. An annual inspection is required even if a progressive inspection system has been approved. B 1.5.1.0.1.a.1 B13 ALL An ATC transponder is not to be used unless it has been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within the preceding A. 30 days. B. 12 calendar months. C. 24 calendar months. C 1.5.1.0.2.a.1 B13 ALL Aircraft maintenance records must include the current status of the A. applicable airworthiness certificate. B. life-limited parts of only the engine and airframe. C. life-limited parts of each airframe, engine, propeller, rotor, and appliance. C 1.5.1.0.3.a.1 B13 ALL Which is true relating to Airworthiness Directives (AD's) ? A. AD's are advisory in nature and are, generally, not addressed immediately. B. Noncompliance with AD's renders an aircraft unairworthy. C. Compliance with AD's is the responsibility of maintenance personnel. B 1.5.1.0.4.a.1 B13 AIR,RTC A new maintenance record being used for an aircraft engine rebuilt by the manufacturer must include previous A. operating hours of the engine. B. annual inspections performed on the engine. C. changes as required by Airworthiness Directives. C 1.5.1.0.5.a.1 B13 ALL If an ATC transponder installed in an aircraft has not been tested, inspected, and found to comply with regulations within a specified period, what is the limitation on its use? A. Its use is not permitted. B. It may be used when in Class G airspace. C. It may be used for VFR flight only. A 1.5.1.0.6.a.1 D30 AIR,RTC Which of these operations could fall under the jurisdiction of FAR Part 125? A. Operations in U.S. registered civil airplanes having a seating capacity of more than 10 but less than 20 passenger seats. B. Scheduled commercial operations (not an air carrier) using an airplane having a seating capacity of 20 or more passenger seats. C. Nonscheduled commercial operations (not an air carrier) using an airplane having a maximum payload of 6,000 pounds or more. C 1.5.1.0.7.a.1 D30 AIR FAR Part 125 could apply to which of these operations? A. Nonscheduled commercial operations (not an air carrier) using an airplane having a maximum payload of less than 6,000 pounds. B. Nonscheduled commercial operations (not an air carrier) using an airplane having a seating capacity of 20 or more passenger seats. C. U.S. registered civil airplanes operating outside the U.S. by persons who are not U.S. citizens. B 1.5.1.0.8.a.1 D30 AIR To obtain relief from any specified section of FAR Part 125, an operator holding an FAR Part 125 certificate should request A. an ``authorization waiver'' from the FAA district office holding that certificate. B. an appropriate waiver from the Administrator for Aviation Standards. C. a ``letter of deviation authority'' from the nearest Flight Standards District Office. C 1.5.1.0.9.a.1 D30 AIR An FAR Part 125 certificate holder must display a true copy of the A. FAR Part 125 ``letter of deviation authority.'' B. address of its principal operations base in each of its aircraft. C. FAR Part 125 certificate in each of its aircraft. C 1.5.1.1.0.a.1 D30 AIR No person is eligible for a certificate to operate under FAR Part 125 if that person A. conducts pilot training under FAR Part 61. B. conducts ferry flights under FAR Part 135. C. ``holds out'' to the public to furnish transportation. C 1.5.1.1.1.a.1 D30 AIR No person is eligible to operate under FAR Part 125 if that person already holds an appropriate operating certificate under A. FAR Part 103. B. FAR Part 121 or FAR Part 135. C. FAR Part 141. B 1.5.1.1.2.a.1 D31 AIR Each person operating an airplane inside the U.S. under FAR Part 125 shall also operate under A. FAR Part 91. B. FAR Part 121. C. FAR Part 135. A 1.5.1.1.3.a.1 D38 AIR No person may serve as pilot in command of an airplane under FAR Part 125 operations unless that person A. holds at least an airline transport pilot certificate and a type rating for the airplane to be flown. B. holds at least a commercial pilot certificate, an appropriate category, class, and type rating, and an instrument rating. C. has logged at least 700 hours of flight time as pilot, including 100 hours of night flight time. B 1.5.1.1.4.a.1 D38 AIR To act as second in command under an FAR Part 125 operation, a person is required to hold at least a A. U.S. commercial pilot or commercial pilot certificate issued on the basis of a valid foreign senior commercial pilot license. B. commercial pilot certificate with appropriate category, class, and instrument rating. C. commercial pilot certificate with appropriate category and class. B 1.5.1.1.5.a.1 D38 AIR Select the pilot action listed below that meets the recent experience requirement for a person to serve as pilot in command of an airplane for an FAR Part 125 operation. A. Passed a written test within the preceding 6 calendar months, covering FAR Parts 61, 91, and 135, and the operations specifications and manual of the certificate holder. B. Completed 3 takeoffs and 3 landings within the preceding 90 days in an approved visual simulator. C. Passed a written EQUIPMENT test, in at least one of the aircraft operated, within the preceding 6 calendar months. B 1.5.1.1.6.a.1 E01 AIR,RTC FAR Part 135 applies to which operation? A. Aerial work including crop dusting and spraying. B. Carrying weekend skiers for hire to another state. C. Student instruction for hire at an approved school. B 1.5.1.1.7.a.1 E01 AIR When operating an airplane with a maximum payload capacity of 7,500 pounds or less as a scheduled commercial operator (not an air carrier) in common carriage solely between points within a state, the operation is governed by the provisions of A. FAR Part 121. B. FAR Part 133. C. FAR Part 135. C 1.5.1.1.8.a.1 E01 RTC A helicopter is being operated for hire with two passengers aboard. If the flight remains within a 25-mile radius of the departure point, the operation could be conducted, with certain stipulations, under A. FAR Part 91. B. FAR Part 97. C. FAR Part 135. A 1.5.1.1.9.a.1 E01 RTC May a helicopter be operated for hire with passengers aboard and not be subject to the rules of FAR Part 135? A. Yes, by notifying the FAA 72 hours before each flight. B. Yes, for sightseeing operations within 50 miles of the flight's origin. C. No, all flights for hire must comply with FAR Part 135. A 1.5.1.2.0.a.1 E01 RTC,LTA FAR Part 135 applies to which operation? A. Nonstop sightseeing flights that begin and end at the same airport, and are conducted within a 25 SM radius of that airport. B. Aerial operations for compensation, such as aerial photography, pipeline patrol, rescue, and crop dusting. C. Commercial operations (not an air carrier) in an aircraft with less than 20 passenger seats and a maximum payload capacity of less than 6,000 pounds. C 1.5.1.2.1.a.1 E01 ALL Under FAR Part 135 operations, who is responsible for keeping copies of the ATCO manual up to date with approved changes or additions? A. Supervising FAA district office and the certificate holder. B. Each district office employee responsible for that manual. C. Each employee of the certificate holder who is furnished a manual. C 1.5.1.2.2.a.1 E01 ALL For FAR Part 135 operations, which document(s) contain(s) procedures that explain how the pilot in command knows that the required return-to-service conditions have been met? A. Daily flight log and operation specifications. B. Certificate holder's manual. C. Mechanical deviation summary guide. B 1.5.1.2.3.a.1 E01 AIR,RTC For FAR Part 135 operations, which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area? A. Letter of authorization. B. Operations specifications. C. Air taxi operating certificate. B 1.5.1.2.4.a.1 E01 ALL An aircraft may be operated in a foreign country by an FAR Part 135 operator if authorized to do so by A. that country. B. the supervising district office. C. the FAA International Field Office in that country. A 1.5.1.2.5.a.1 E02 ALL In accordance with FAR Part 135, what period of time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen while cruising at 13,500 feet MSL for 3 hours 45 minutes in an unpressurized aircraft? A. 1 hour 30 minutes. B. 2 hours 30 minutes. C. 3 hours 45 minutes. C 1.5.1.2.6.a.1 E02 AIR,RTC Which person may be carried aboard an aircraft without complying with the passenger-carrying requirements of FAR Part 135? A. A crewmember or employee of another certificate holder. B. A member of the U.S. diplomatic corps on an official courier mission. C. An individual who is necessary for the safe handling of animals on the aircraft. C 1.5.1.2.7.a.1 E02 AIR,RTC For FAR Part 135 operations, what restrictions must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment? Cargo must be A. carried directly above the seated occupants in overhead bins. B. properly secured by a seatbelt or other approved tiedown. C. separated from seated passengers by a partition capable of withstanding specified stresses. B 1.5.1.2.8.a.1 E02 AIR,RTC Under FAR Part 135, which is a requirement governing the carriage of carry-on baggage? A. Carry-on baggage must be stowed ahead of all seated occupants. B. All carry-on baggage must be restrained so that its movement is prevented during turbulence. C. Any piece of carry-on baggage, regardless of size, must be properly secured by a seatbelt or tiedown device. B 1.5.1.2.9.a.1 E02 AIR,RTC In accordance with FAR Part 135, what period of time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen while cruising at 12,500 feet MSL for 1 hour 50 minutes in an unpressurized aircraft? A. 55 minutes. B. 1 hour 20 minutes. C. 1 hour 50 minutes. C 1.5.1.3.0.a.1 E02 AIR,RTC In accordance with FAR Part 135, what use of supplemental oxygen is required, if any, of a pilot when cruising at 12,500 feet MSL in an unpressurized aircraft? Supplemental oxygen is A. not required at that altitude. B. to be used during the entire flight while at that altitude. C. required for that portion of the flight that is more than 60 minutes in duration while at that altitude. B 1.5.1.3.1.a.1 E02 AIR For FAR Part 135 operations, the airplane flight manual specifies a maximum altitude loss of 75 feet for malfunction of the autopilot under cruise conditions. What is the lowest altitude above the terrain the autopilot may be used during en route operations? A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 1,500 feet. A 1.5.1.3.2.a.1 E02 AIR A commuter air carrier certificate holder plans to assign a pilot as pilot in command of an airplane to be used in passenger-carrying operations. Which experience requirement must that pilot meet if the airplane is to be flown with an autopilot and no second in command? A. 150 hours as pilot in command in category and type. B. 100 hours in the category, class, and type. C. 100 hours as pilot in command in the make and model. C 1.5.1.3.3.a.1 E02 AIR For FAR Part 135 operations, in which airplanes is a flight attendant crewmember required? A. Any airplane being operated in commuter air carrier service with a gross weight in excess of 12,500 pounds, regardless of the seating capacity. B. All turbine-engine-powered airplanes having a total seating capacity of 19 or more. C. Any airplane having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 20 or more. C 1.5.1.3.4.a.1 E02 AIR The oral preflight briefing required on FAR Part 135 passenger-carrying airplanes shall be A. substituted by printed cards carried in locations convenient for use by each passenger in aircraft with 9 seats or less. B. conducted by the pilot in command or a crewmember and supplemented by printed cards for the use of each passenger. C. presented in person by the pilot in command while another flight crewmember demonstrates the operation of emergency equipment. B 1.5.1.3.5.a.1 E03 AIR In which aircraft, operating under FAR Part 135, is a third gyroscopic pitch-and-bank indicator required? A. All turbojet airplanes. B. All transport category airplanes. C. All airplanes where a pilot in command and second in command is required. A 1.5.1.3.6.a.1 E03 AIR For which airplanes, under FAR Part 135 operations, must each flight crewmember station have a shoulder harness installed? A. All airplanes operated in commuter air carrier service. B. Any airplane being operated under FAR Part 135, regardless of weight and seating configuration. C. All airplanes having a passenger seating configuration, excluding any pilot seat, of 10 seats or more. C 1.5.1.3.7.a.1 E03 RTC While en route over water with passengers aboard, a helicopter is required by FAR Part 135 to A. have a visibility of, at least, during the day -1/2 mile; or at night - 1 mile. B. be operated at an altitude of 1 1/2 times the altitude needed to reach shore in the event of an engine failure. C. be equipped with flotation devices. C 1.5.1.3.8.a.1 E03 AIR To operate an airplane over water with passengers aboard, except for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum altitude requirement (FAR Part 135)? A. There is no minimum altitude if flotation devices are aboard. B. There is no minimum altitude requirement under FAR Part 135. C. An altitude that allows land to be reached in the event of an engine failure. C 1.5.1.3.9.a.1 E04 AIR A pilot is en route over designated mountainous terrain at night in an airplane under VFR. Under FAR Part 135, what is the minimum altitude requirement above the highest obstacle within 5 miles of the course to be flown? A. 1,000 feet. B. 1,500 feet. C. 2,000 feet. C 1.5.1.4.0.a.1 E04 AIR A pilot is en route at night in an airplane under VFR. Under FAR Part 135, what is the minimum altitude requirement above the highest obstacle within 5 miles of the course to be flown? A. 500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 1,500 feet. B 1.5.1.4.1.a.1 E04 RTC Under FAR Part 135, except for takeoffs and landings, a helicopter operating VFR over a congested area is required to be operated at least A. 300 feet AGL. B. 500 feet AGL. C. 700 feet AGL. A 1.5.1.4.2.a.1 E04 AIR Except for takeoffs and landings, what is the minimum altitude requirement to operate an airplane under FAR Part 135 during day VFR? A. 1,500 feet AGL. B. 1,000 feet AGL. C. 500 feet AGL. C 1.5.1.4.3.a.1 E04 AIR Except for takeoffs and landings, what is the minimum horizontal distance from any obstacle requirement for an airplane under FAR Part 135 during day VFR? A. 1,500 feet. B. 1,000 feet. C. 500 feet. C 1.5.1.4.4.a.1 E04 RTC What is the minimum visibility requirement for FAR Part 135 helicopter VFR operations in Class G airspace at less than 1,200 feet AGL? A. Day - 1/2 mile; night - 1 mile. B. Day - 1/2 mile; night - 1/2 mile. C. Day - 1 mile; night - 1 mile. A 1.5.1.4.5.a.1 E04 RTC What is the minimum visibility requirement for FAR Part 135 helicopter VFR operations in Class D airspace? A. Day - 1/2 mile; night - 1/2 mile. B. Day - 1/2 mile; night - 1 mile. C. Day - 1 mile; night - 1 mile. B 1.5.1.4.6.a.1 E04 AIR Under FAR Part 135, what is the minimum visibility requirement for airplane VFR operations in Class G airspace when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet? A. Day - 1/2 mile; night - 1 mile. B. Day - 2 miles; night - 3 miles. C. Day - 2 miles; night - 2 miles. C 1.5.1.4.7.a.1 E04 RTC To operate a helicopter VFR over-the-top while carrying passengers, what operating limitations, in part, are required by FAR Part 135 operations? A. Two appropriately rated pilots must be aboard; autopilot not authorized. B. Weather conditions that allow descent under VFR in the event of an engine failure. C. The helicopter must be certificated for IFR flight and the pilot in command must hold an airline transport pilot certificate. B 1.5.1.4.8.a.1 E04 AIR To operate an airplane VFR over-the-top while carrying passengers, what operating limitations, in part, are required by FAR Part 135 operations? A. Two appropriately rated pilots must be aboard; autopilot not authorized. B. Weather conditions that allow descent under VFR in the event of an engine failure. C. Radar approach facilities must be in operation at the destination point 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA. B 1.5.1.4.9.a.1 E05 RTC To conduct VFR over-the-top in a helicopter under FAR Part 135, the pilot in command is required to hold at least an A. instrument - helicopter rating. B. airline transport pilot certificate with helicopter rating. C. instrument - helicopter rating and a Class I medical certificate. A 1.5.1.5.0.a.1 E05 AIR,RTC To act as pilot in command during IFR operations under FAR Part 135, how many hours of previous instrument time in actual flight is required? At least A. 50 hours. B. 75 hours. C. 100 hours. A 2.5.1.5.1.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI The ratio between the total airload imposed on the wing and the gross weight of an aircraft in flight is known as A. load factor and directly affects stall speed. B. aspect load and directly affects stall speed. C. load factor and has no relation with stall speed. A 2.5.1.5.2.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI Load factor is the lift generated by the wings of an aircraft at any given time A. divided by the total weight of the aircraft. B. multiplied by the total weight of the aircraft. C. divided by the basic empty weight of the aircraft. A 2.5.1.5.3.a.1 H01 AIR For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn A. is constant and the stall speed increases. B. varies with the rate of turn. C. is constant and the stall speed decreases. A 2.5.1.5.4.a.1 H01 AIR Airplane wing loading during a level coordinated turn in smooth air depends upon the A. rate of turn. B. angle of bank. C. true airspeed. B 2.5.1.5.5.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI In a rapid recovery from a dive, the effects of load factor would cause the stall speed to A. increase. B. decrease. C. not vary. A 2.5.1.5.6.a.1 H01 AIR If an aircraft with a gross weight of 2,000 pounds was subjected to a 60° constant-altitude bank, the total load would be A. 3,000 pounds. B. 4,000 pounds. C. 12,000 pounds. B 2.5.1.5.7.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI While maintaining a constant angle of bank and altitude in a coordinated turn, an increase in airspeed will A. decrease the rate of turn resulting in a decreased load factor. B. decrease the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. C. increase the rate of turn resulting in no change in load factor. B 2.5.1.5.8.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI Lift on a wing is most properly defined as the A. force acting perpendicular to the relative wind. B. differential pressure acting perpendicular to the chord of the wing. C. reduced pressure resulting from a laminar flow over the upper camber of an airfoil, which acts perpendicular to the mean camber. A 2.5.1.5.9.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI While holding the angle of bank constant, if the rate of turn is varied the load factor would A. remain constant regardless of air density and the resultant lift vector. B. vary depending upon speed and air density provided the resultant lift vector varies proportionately. C. vary depending upon the resultant lift vector. A 2.5.1.6.0.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI The need to slow an aircraft below VA is brought about by the following weather phenomenon: A. High density altitude which increases the indicated stall speed. B. Turbulence which causes an increase in stall speed. C. Turbulence which causes a decrease in stall speed. B 2.5.1.6.1.a.1 H01 AIR In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become A. twice as great. B. half as great. C. four times greater. C 2.5.1.6.2.a.1 H01 AIR As airspeed decreases in level flight below that speed for maximum lift/drag ratio, total drag of an airplane A. decreases because of lower parasite drag. B. increases because of increased induced drag. C. increases because of increased parasite drag. B 2.5.1.6.3.a.1 H01 AIR If the airspeed is increased from 90 knots to 135 knots during a level 60° banked turn, the load factor will A. increase as well as the stall speed. B. decrease and the stall speed will increase. C. remain the same but the radius of turn will increase. C 2.5.1.6.4.a.1 H01 AIR Baggage weighing 90 pounds is placed in a normal category airplane's baggage compartment which is placarded at 100 pounds. If this airplane is subjected to a positive load factor of 3.5 G's, the total load of the baggage would be A. 315 pounds and would be excessive. B. 315 pounds and would not be excessive. C. 350 pounds and would not be excessive. B 2.5.1.6.5.a.1 H01 AIR (Refer to figure 1.) At the airspeed represented by point A, in steady flight, the airplane will A. have its maximum L/D ratio. B. have its minimum L/D ratio. C. be developing its maximum coefficient of lift. A 2.5.1.6.6.a.1 H01 AIR (Refer to figure 1.) At an airspeed represented by point B, in steady flight, the pilot can expect to obtain the airplane's maximum A. endurance. B. glide range. C. coefficient of lift. B 2.5.1.6.7.a.1 H01 AIR,GLI Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack? A. A decrease in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing, and decrease drag. B. An increase in angle of attack will decrease impact pressure below the wing, and increase drag. C. An increase in angle of attack will increase impact pressure below the wing, and increase drag. C 2.5.1.6.8.a.1 H01 RTC For gyroplanes with constant-speed propellers, the first indication of carburetor icing is usually A. a decrease in engine RPM. B. a decrease in manifold pressure. C. engine roughness followed by a decrease in engine RPM. B 2.5.1.6.9.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC Before shutdown, while at idle, the ignition key is momentarily turned OFF. The engine continues to run with no interruption; this A. is normal because the engine is usually stopped by moving the mixture to idle cut-off. B. should not normally happen and indicates a dangerous situation. C. is an undesirable practice, but indicates that nothing is wrong. B 2.5.1.7.0.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA Leaving the carburetor heat on while taking off A. leans the mixture for more power on takeoff. B. will decrease the takeoff distance. C. will increase the ground roll. C 2.5.1.7.1.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA A way to detect a broken magneto primary grounding lead is to A. idle the engine and momentarily turn the ignition off. B. add full power, while holding the brakes, and momentarily turn off the ignition. C. run on one magneto, lean the mixture, and look for a rise in manifold pressure. A 2.5.1.7.2.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA Fouling of spark plugs is more apt to occur if the aircraft A. gains altitude with no mixture adjustment. B. descends from altitude with no mixture adjustment. C. throttle is advanced very abruptly. A 2.5.1.7.3.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA The most probable reason an engine continues to run after the ignition switch has been turned off is A. carbon deposits glowing on the spark plugs. B. a magneto ground wire is in contact with the engine casing. C. a broken magneto ground wire. C 2.5.1.7.4.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, the engine A. will not operate on one magneto. B. cannot be started with the switch in the BOTH position. C. could accidently start if the propeller is moved with fuel in the cylinder. C 2.5.1.7.5.a.1 H02 AIR For internal cooling, reciprocating aircraft engines are especially dependent on A. a properly functioning cowl flap augmenter. B. the circulation of lubricating oil. C. the proper freon/compressor output ratio. B 2.5.1.7.6.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA The pilot controls the air/fuel ratio with the A. throttle B. manifold pressure C. mixture control C 2.5.1.7.7.a.1 H03 AIR Which airspeed would a pilot be unable to identify by the color coding of an airspeed indicator? A. The never-exceed speed. B. The power-off stall speed. C. The maneuvering speed. C 2.5.1.7.8.a.1 H03 AIR Which statement is true about magnetic deviation of a compass? Deviation A. varies over time as the agonic line shifts. B. varies for different headings of the same aircraft. C. is the same for all aircraft in the same locality. B 2.5.1.7.9.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. A. Power-off stalls occur at higher airspeeds with the gear and flaps down. B. In a 60° bank the airplane stalls at a lower airspeed with the gear up. C. Power-on stalls occur at lower airspeeds in shallower banks. C 2.5.1.8.0.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 2.) Select the correct statement regarding stall speeds. The airplane will stall A. 10 knots higher in a power-on 60° bank with gear and flaps up than with gear and flaps down. B. 35 knots lower in a power-off, flaps-up, 60° bank, than in a power-off, flaps-down, wings-level configuration. C. 10 knots higher in a 45° bank, power-on stall than in a wings-level stall. A 2.5.1.8.1.a.1 H51 AIR,GLI Which is true regarding the use of flaps during level turns? A. The lowering of flaps increases the stall speed. B. The raising of flaps increases the stall speed. C. Raising flaps will require added forward pressure on the yoke or stick. B 2.5.1.8.2.a.1 H51 AIR,GLI One of the main functions of flaps during the approach and landing is to A. decrease the angle of descent without increasing the airspeed. B. provide the same amount of lift at a slower airspeed. C. decrease lift, thus enabling a steeper-than- normal approach to be made. B 2.5.1.8.3.a.1 H51 AIR Which statement best describes the operating principle of a constant-speed propeller? A. As throttle setting is changed by the pilot, the prop governor causes pitch angle of the propeller blades to remain unchanged. B. A high blade angle, or increased pitch, reduces the propeller drag and allows more engine power for takeoffs. C. The propeller control regulates the engine RPM and in turn the propeller RPM. C 2.5.1.8.4.a.1 H51 AIR In aircraft equipped with constant-speed propellers and normally-aspirated engines, which procedure should be used to avoid placing undue stress on the engine components? When power is being A. decreased, reduce the RPM before reducing the manifold pressure. B. increased, increase the RPM before increasing the manifold pressure. C. increased or decreased, the RPM should be adjusted before the manifold pressure. B 2.5.1.8.5.a.1 H51 AIR,RTC,LTA Detonation may occur at high-power settings when A. the fuel mixture instantaneously ignites instead of burning progressively and evenly. B. an excessively rich fuel mixture causes an explosive gain in power. C. the fuel mixture is ignited too early by hot carbon deposits in the cylinder. A 2.5.1.8.6.a.1 H51 AIR,RTC,LTA The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of normal spark ignition is known as A. instantaneous combustion. B. detonation. C. pre-ignition. C 2.5.1.8.7.a.1 H51 AIR,RTC,LTA Fuel/air ratio is the ratio between the A. volume of fuel and volume of air entering the cylinder. B. weight of fuel and weight of air entering the cylinder. C. weight of fuel and weight of air entering the carburetor. B 2.5.1.8.8.a.1 H51 AIR,RTC,LTA The mixture control can be adjusted, which A. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming too rich at higher altitudes. B. regulates the amount of air flow through the carburetor's venturi. C. prevents the fuel/air combination from becoming lean as the airplane climbs. A 2.5.1.8.9.a.1 H51 AIR,RTC,LTA Which statement is true concerning the effect of the application of carburetor heat? A. It enriches the fuel/air mixture. B. It leans the fuel/air mixture. C. It has no effect on the fuel/air mixture. A 2.5.1.9.0.a.1 H51 AIR,RTC,LTA Detonation occurs in a reciprocating aircraft engine when A. there is an explosive increase of fuel caused by too rich a fuel/air mixture. B. the spark plugs receive an electrical jolt caused by a short in the wiring. C. the unburned charge in the cylinders is subjected to instantaneous combustion. C 2.5.1.9.1.a.1 H55 AIR Name the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering an aircraft. A. Power, pitch, bank, and trim. B. Thrust, lift, turns, and glides. C. Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents. C 2.5.1.9.2.a.1 H55 AIR,GLI To increase the rate of turn and at the same time decrease the radius, a pilot should A. maintain the bank and decrease airspeed. B. steepen the bank and increase airspeed. C. steepen the bank and decrease airspeed. C 2.5.1.9.3.a.1 H55 AIR Which is correct with respect to rate and radius of turn for an airplane flown in a coordinated turn at a constant altitude? A. For a specific angle of bank and airspeed, the rate and radius of turn will not vary. B. To maintain a steady rate of turn, the angle of bank must be increased as the airspeed is decreased. C. The faster the true airspeed, the faster the rate and larger the radius of turn regardless of the angle of bank. A 2.5.1.9.4.a.1 H55 AIR Why is it necessary to increase back elevator pressure to maintain altitude during a turn? To compensate for the A. loss of the vertical component of lift. B. loss of the horizontal component of lift and the increase in centrifugal force. C. rudder deflection and slight opposite aileron throughout the turn. A 2.5.1.9.5.a.1 H55 AIR To maintain altitude during a turn, the angle of attack must be increased to compensate for the decrease in the A. forces opposing the resultant component of drag. B. vertical component of lift. C. horizontal component of lift. B 2.5.1.9.6.a.1 H60 AIR Stall speed is affected by A. weight, load factor, and power. B. load factor, angle of attack, and power. C. angle of attack, weight, and air density. A 2.5.1.9.7.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI A rectangular wing, as compared to other wing planforms, has a tendency to stall first at the A. wingtip, with the stall progression toward the wing root. B. wing root, with the stall progression toward the wing tip. C. center trailing edge, with the stall progression outward toward the wing root and tip. B 2.5.1.9.8.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI By changing the angle of attack of a wing, the pilot can control the airplane's A. lift, airspeed, and drag. B. lift, airspeed, and CG. C. lift and airspeed, but not drag. A 2.5.1.9.9.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI The angle of attack of a wing directly controls the A. angle of incidence of the wing. B. amount of airflow above and below the wing. C. distribution of pressures acting on the wing. C 2.5.2.0.0.a.1 H66 AIR In theory, if the angle of attack and other factors remain constant and the airspeed is doubled, the lift produced at the higher speed will be A. the same as at the lower speed. B. two times greater than at the lower speed. C. four times greater than at the lower speed. C 2.5.2.0.1.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI An aircraft wing is designed to produce lift resulting from relatively A. negative air pressure below and a vacuum above the wing's surface. B. a vacuum below the wing's surface and greater air pressure above the wing's surface. C. higher air pressure below the wing's surface and lower air pressure above the wing's surface. C 2.5.2.0.2.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI On a wing, the force of lift acts perpendicular to and the force of drag acts parallel to the A. chord line. B. flight path. C. longitudinal axis. B 2.5.2.0.3.a.1 H66 AIR Which statement is true, regarding the opposing forces acting on an airplane in steady-state level flight? A. These forces are equal. B. Thrust is greater than drag and weight and lift are equal. C. Thrust is greater than drag and lift is greater than weight. A 2.5.2.0.4.a.1 H66 AIR The angle of attack at which a wing stalls remains constant regardless of A. weight, dynamic pressure, bank angle, or pitch attitude. B. dynamic pressure, but varies with weight, bank angle, and pitch attitude. C. weight and pitch attitude, but varies with dynamic pressure and bank angle. A 2.5.2.0.5.a.1 H66 AIR In light airplanes, normal recovery from spins may become difficult if the A. CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the longitudinal axis. B. CG is too far rearward and rotation is around the CG. C. spin is entered before the stall is fully developed. B 2.5.2.0.6.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI The inclinometer is mounted on the left side of the instrument panel. A spin to the left would displace the ball in which direction? A. To the right. B. No displacement, it will remain centered. C. To the left. C 2.5.2.0.7.a.1 H66 AIR If an airplane is loaded to the rear of its CG range, it will tend to be unstable about its A. vertical axis. B. lateral axis. C. longitudinal axis. B 2.5.2.0.8.a.1 H66 ALL At higher elevation airports the pilot should know that indicated airspeed A. will be unchanged, but groundspeed will be faster. B. will be higher, but groundspeed will be unchanged. C. should be increased to compensate for the thinner air. A 2.5.2.0.9.a.1 H66 AIR An airplane leaving ground effect will A. experience a reduction in ground friction and require a slight power reduction. B. experience an increase in induced drag and require more thrust. C. require a lower angle of attack to maintain the same lift coefficient. B 2.5.2.1.0.a.1 H66 AIR If airspeed is increased during a level turn, what action would be necessary to maintain altitude? The angle of attack A. and angle of bank must be decreased. B. must be increased or angle of bank decreased. C. must be decreased or angle of bank increased. C 2.5.2.1.1.a.1 H66 AIR The stalling speed of an airplane is most affected by A. changes in air density. B. variations in flight altitude. C. variations in airplane loading. C 2.5.2.1.2.a.1 H66 AIR An airplane will stall at the same A. angle of attack regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon. B. airspeed regardless of the attitude with relation to the horizon. C. angle of attack and attitude with relation to the horizon. A 2.5.2.1.3.a.1 H66 AIR (Refer to figure 3.) If an airplane glides at an angle of attack of 10°, how much altitude will it lose in 1 mile? A. 240 feet. B. 480 feet. C. 960 feet. B 2.5.2.1.4.a.1 H66 AIR (Refer to figure 3.) How much altitude will this airplane lose in 3 miles of gliding at an angle of attack of 8°? A. 440 feet. B. 880 feet. C. 1,320 feet. C 2.5.2.1.5.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 3.) The L/D ratio at a 2° angle of attack is approximately the same as the L/D ratio for a A. 9.75° angle of attack. B. 10.5° angle of attack. C. 16.5° angle of attack. C 2.5.2.1.6.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI If the same angle of attack is maintained in ground effect as when out of ground effect, lift will A. increase, and induced drag will decrease. B. decrease, and parasite drag will increase. C. increase, and induced drag will increase. A 2.5.2.1.7.a.1 H66 AIR What performance is characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ratio in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum A. gain in altitude over a given distance. B. range and maximum distance glide. C. coefficient of lift and minimum coefficient of drag. B 2.5.2.1.8.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all A. upward forces is less than the sum of all downward forces. B. rearward forces is greater than the sum of all forward forces. C. forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces. C 2.5.2.1.9.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI Which is true regarding the force of lift in steady, unaccelerated flight? A. At lower airspeeds the angle of attack must be less to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. B. There is a corresponding indicated airspeed required for every angle of attack to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. C. An airfoil will always stall at the same indicated airspeed; therefore, an increase in weight will require an increase in speed to generate sufficient lift to maintain altitude. B 2.5.2.2.0.a.1 H66 AIR During the transition from straight-and-level flight to a climb, the angle of attack is increased and lift A. is momentarily decreased. B. remains the same. C. is momentarily increased. C 2.5.2.2.1.a.1 H66 AIR (Refer to figure 4.) What is the stall speed of an airplane under a load factor of 2 G's if the unaccelerated stall speed is 60 knots? A. 66 knots. B. 74 knots. C. 84 knots. C 2.5.2.2.2.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 4.) What increase in load factor would take place if the angle of bank were increased from 60° to 80°? A. 3 G's. B. 3.5 G's. C. 4 G's. C 2.5.2.2.3.a.1 H66 AIR To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at A. the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack. B. a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack. C. a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack. C 2.5.2.2.4.a.1 H66 AIR To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires A. a lower angle of attack. B. the same angle of attack. C. a greater angle of attack. A 2.5.2.2.5.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI As the angle of bank is increased, the vertical component of lift A. decreases and the horizontal component of lift increases. B. increases and the horizontal component of lift decreases. C. decreases and the horizontal component of lift remains constant. A 2.5.2.2.6.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI If the airplane attitude remains in a new position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A. neutral longitudinal static stability. B. positive longitudinal static stability. C. neutral longitudinal dynamic stability. A 2.5.2.2.7.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI Longitudinal dynamic instability in an airplane can be identified by A. bank oscillations becoming progressively steeper. B. pitch oscillations becoming progressively steeper. C. Trilatitudinal roll oscillations becoming progressively steeper. B 2.5.2.2.8.a.1 H66 AIR Longitudinal stability involves the motion of the airplane controlled by its A. rudder. B. elevator. C. ailerons. B 2.5.2.2.9.a.1 H66 AIR What changes in airplane longitudinal control must be made to maintain altitude while the airspeed is being decreased? A. Increase the angle of attack to produce more lift than drag. B. Increase the angle of attack to compensate for the decreasing lift. C. Decrease the angle of attack to compensate for the increasing drag. B 2.5.2.3.0.a.1 H66 AIR If the airplane attitude initially tends to return to its original position after the elevator control is pressed forward and released, the airplane displays A. positive dynamic stability. B. positive static stability. C. neutral dynamic stability. B 2.5.2.3.1.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 5.) The horizontal dashed line from point C to point E represents the A. ultimate load factor. B. positive limit load factor. C. airspeed range for normal operations. B 2.5.2.3.2.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 5.) The vertical line from point E to point F is represented on the airspeed indicator by the A. upper limit of the yellow arc. B. upper limit of the green arc. C. blue radial line. A 2.5.2.3.3.a.1 H66 AIR,GLI (Refer to figure 5.) The vertical line from point D to point G is represented on the airspeed indicator by the maximum speed limit of the A. green arc. B. yellow arc. C. white arc. A 2.5.2.3.4.a.1 H66 AIR,RTC The performance tables of an aircraft for takeoff and climb are based on A. pressure/density altitude. B. cabin altitude. C. true altitude. A 2.5.2.3.5.a.1 H66 AIR Propeller efficiency is the A. ratio of thrust horsepower to brake horsepower. B. actual distance a propeller advances in one revolution. C. ratio of geometric pitch to effective pitch. A 2.5.2.3.6.a.1 H66 AIR A fixed-pitch propeller is designed for best efficiency only at a given combination of A. altitude and RPM. B. airspeed and RPM. C. airspeed and altitude. B 2.5.2.3.7.a.1 H66 AIR The reason for variations in geometric pitch (twisting) along a propeller blade is that it A. permits a relatively constant angle of incidence along its length when in cruising flight. B. prevents the portion of the blade near the hub from stalling during cruising flight. C. permits a relatively constant angle of attack along its length when in cruising flight. C 2.5.2.3.8.a.1 H66 AIR A propeller rotating clockwise as seen from the rear, creates a spiraling slipstream that tends to rotate the airplane to the A. right around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis. B. left around the vertical axis, and to the right around the longitudinal axis. C. left around the vertical axis, and to the left around the longitudinal axis. B 2.5.2.3.9.a.1 H70 AIR,GLI When the angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is increased, the center of pressure will A. have very limited movement. B. move aft along the airfoil surface. C. remain unaffected. C 2.5.2.4.0.a.1 H71 RTC Coning is caused by the combined forces of A. drag, weight, and translational lift. B. lift and centrifugal force. C. flapping and centrifugal force. B 2.5.2.4.1.a.1 H71 RTC The forward speed of a rotorcraft is restricted primarily by A. dissymmetry of lift. B. transverse flow effect. C. high-frequency vibrations. A 2.5.2.4.2.a.1 H71 RTC When hovering, a helicopter tends to move in the direction of tail rotor thrust. This statement is A. true; the movement is called transverse tendency. B. true; the movement is called translating tendency. C. false; the movement is opposite the direction of tail rotor thrust, and is called translating tendency. B 2.5.2.4.3.a.1 H71 RTC The purpose of lead-lag (drag) hinges in a three-bladed, fully articulated helicopter rotor system is to compensate for A. Coriolis effect. B. dissymmetry of lift. C. blade flapping tendency. A 2.5.2.4.4.a.1 H71 RTC What happens to the helicopter as it experiences translating tendency? A. It tends to dip slightly to the right as the helicopter approaches approximately 15 knots in takeoff. B. It gains increased rotor efficiency as air over the rotor system reaches approximately 15 knots. C. It moves in the direction of tail rotor thrust. C 2.5.2.4.5.a.1 H71 RTC The unequal lift across the rotor disc that occurs in horizontal flight as a result of the difference in velocity of the air over the advancing half of the disc area and the air passing over the retreating half of the disc area is known as A. coning. B. disc loading. C. dissymmetry of lift. C 2.5.2.4.6.a.1 H71 RTC The lift differential that exists between the advancing blade and the retreating blade is known as A. Coriolis effect. B. translational lift. C. dissymmetry of lift. C 2.5.2.4.7.a.1 H71 RTC Most helicopters, by design tend to drift to the right when hovering in a no-wind condition. This statement is A. false; helicopters have no tendency to drift, but will rotate in that direction. B. true; the mast or cyclic pitch system of most helicopters is rigged forward, this with gyroscopic precession will overcome this tendency. C. true; the mast or cyclic pitch system of most helicopters is rigged to the left to overcome this tendency. C 2.5.2.4.8.a.1 H72 RTC When a rotorcraft transitions from straight-and-level flight into a 30° bank while maintaining a constant altitude, the total lift force must A. increase and the load factor will increase. B. increase and the load factor will decrease. C. remain constant and the load factor will decrease. A 2.5.2.4.9.a.1 H73 RTC Cyclic control pressure is applied during flight that results in a maximum increase in main rotor blade pitch angle at the ``three o'clock'' position. Which way will the rotor disc tilt? A. Aft. B. Left. C. Right. A 2.5.2.5.0.a.1 H73 RTC Cyclic control pressure is applied during flight that results in a maximum decrease in pitch angle of the rotor blades at the ``12 o'clock'' position. Which way will the rotor disc tilt? A. Aft. B. Left. C. Forward. B 2.5.2.5.1.a.1 H73 RTC The primary purpose of the tail rotor system is to A. assist in making coordinated turns. B. maintain heading during forward flight. C. counteract the torque effect of the main rotor. C 2.5.2.5.2.a.1 H73 RTC Can the tail rotor produce thrust to the left? A. No; the right thrust can only be reduced, causing tail movement to the left. B. Yes; primarily so that hovering turns can be accomplished to the right. C. Yes; primarily to counteract the drag of the transmission during autorotation. C 2.5.2.5.3.a.1 H74 RTC The main rotor blades of a fully-articulated rotor system can A. flap and feather collectively. B. flap, drag, and feather independently. C. feather independently, but cannot flap or drag. B 2.5.2.5.4.a.1 H74 RTC A reciprocating engine in a helicopter is more likely to stop due to in-flight carburetor icing than will the same type engine in an airplane. This statement A. has no basis in fact. The same type engine will run equally well in either aircraft. B. is true. The freewheeling unit will not allow windmilling (flywheel) effect to be exerted on a helicopter engine. C. is false. The clutch will immediately release the load from the helicopter engine under engine malfunctioning conditions. B 2.5.2.5.5.a.1 H74 RTC What is the primary purpose of the clutch? A. It allows the engine to be started without driving the main rotor system. B. It provides disengagement of the engine from the rotor system for autorotation. C. It transmits engine power to the main rotor, tail rotor, generator/alternator, and other accessories. A 2.5.2.5.6.a.1 H74 RTC What is the primary purpose of the freewheeling unit? A. It allows the engine to be started without driving the main rotor system. B. It provides speed reduction between the engine, main rotor system, and tail rotor system. C. It provides disengagement of the engine from the rotor system for autorotation purposes. C 2.5.2.5.7.a.1 H74 RTC The main rotor blades of a semirigid rotor system can A. flap and feather as a unit. B. flap, drag, and feather independently. C. feather independently, but cannot flap or drag. A 2.5.2.5.8.a.1 H77 RTC Rotorcraft climb performance is most adversely affected by A. higher than standard temperature and low relative humidity. B. lower than standard temperature and high relative humidity. C. higher than standard temperature and high relative humidity. C 2.5.2.5.9.a.1 H77 RTC The most unfavorable combination of conditions for rotorcraft performance is A. low density altitude, low gross weight, and calm wind. B. high density altitude, high gross weight, and calm wind. C. high density altitude, high gross weight, and strong wind. B 2.5.2.6.0.a.1 H77 RTC How does high density altitude affect rotorcraft performance? A. Engine and rotor efficiency is reduced. B. Engine and rotor efficiency is increased. C. It increases rotor drag, which requires more power for normal flight. A 2.5.2.6.1.a.1 H78 RTC A medium-frequency vibration that suddenly occurs during flight could be indicative of a defective A. main rotor system. B. tail rotor system. C. transmission system. B 2.5.2.6.2.a.1 H78 RTC In most helicopters, medium-frequency vibrations indicate a defective A. engine. B. main rotor system. C. tail rotor system. C 2.5.2.6.3.a.1 H78 RTC Abnormal helicopter vibrations in the low-frequency range are associated with which system or component? A. Tail rotor. B. Main rotor. C. Transmission. B 2.5.2.6.4.a.1 H78 RTC Helicopter low-frequency vibrations are always associated with the A. main rotor. B. tail rotor. C. transmission. A 2.5.2.6.5.a.1 H78 RTC A high-frequency vibration that suddenly occurs during flight could be an indication of a defective A. transmission. B. freewheeling unit. C. main rotor system. A 2.5.2.6.6.a.1 H78 RTC Ground resonance is more likely to occur with helicopters that are equipped with A. rigid rotor systems. B. semi-rigid rotor systems. C. fully articulated rotor systems. C 2.5.2.6.7.a.1 H80 RTC The proper action to initiate a quick stop is to apply A. forward cyclic, while raising the collective and applying right antitorque pedal. B. aft cyclic, while raising the collective and applying left antitorque pedal. C. aft cyclic, while lowering the collective and applying right antitorque pedal. C 2.5.2.6.8.a.1 I04 AIR What is an operational difference between the turn coordinator and the turn-and-slip indicator? The turn coordinator A. is always electric; the turn-and-slip indicator is always vacuum-driven. B. indicates bank angle only; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination. C. indicates roll rate, rate of turn, and coordination; the turn-and-slip indicator indicates rate of turn and coordination. C 2.5.2.6.9.a.1 I04 AIR What is an advantage of an electric turn coordinator if the airplane has a vacuum system for other gyroscopic instruments? A. It is a backup in case of vacuum system failure. B. It is more reliable than the vacuum-driven indicators. C. It will not tumble as will vacuum-driven turn indicators. A 2.5.2.7.0.a.1 I05 AIR If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°? A. 1 minute. B. 2 minutes. C. 3 minutes. B 2.5.2.7.1.a.1 K20 AIR A detuning of engine crankshaft counterweights is a source of overstress that may be caused by A. rapid opening and closing of the throttle. B. carburetor ice forming on the throttle valve. C. operating with an excessively rich fuel/air mixture. A 2.5.2.7.2.a.1 L34 ALL How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space. B. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate. C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft. C 2.5.2.7.3.a.1 N07 GLI Which is true regarding variometers? A. Variometers do not utilize outside air static pressure lines. B. A variometer is generally considered to be less sensitive and has a slower response time than a vertical-speed indicator. C. A common problem in pellet variometers is stickiness of the piston because of dirt, moisture, or static electricity in the tapered tubes. C 2.5.2.7.4.a.1 N07 GLI Which is true regarding variometers? A. An electric variometer does not utilize outside air static pressure lines. B. A total energy variometer indicates actual thermal existence or nonexistence rather than indications of climb or descent due to stick thermals. C. One of the advantages of the pellet variometer over the vane variometer, is that dirt, moisture, or static electricity will not affect its operation. B 2.5.2.7.5.a.1 N07 GLI Which is true concerning total energy compensators? The instrument A. responds to up and down air currents only. B. will register climbs that result from stick thermals. C. reacts to climbs and descents like a conventional rate-of-climb indicator. A 2.5.2.7.6.a.1 N20 GLI The primary purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease A. the drag. B. landing speed. C. the lift of the wing. C 2.5.2.7.7.a.1 N20 GLI That portion of the glider's total drag created by the production of lift is called A. induced drag, and is not affected by changes in airspeed. B. induced drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. C. parasite drag, and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. B 2.5.2.7.8.a.1 N20 GLI The best L/D ratio of a glider occurs when parasite drag is A. equal to induced drag. B. less than induced drag. C. greater than induced drag. A 2.5.2.7.9.a.1 N20 GLI A glider is designed for an L/D ratio of 22:1 at 50 MPH in calm air. What would the approximate GLIDE RATIO be with a direct headwind of 25 MPH? A. 44:1. B. 22:1. C. 11:1. C 2.5.2.8.0.a.1 N20 AIR,GLI Which is true regarding aerodynamic drag? A. Induced drag is created entirely by air resistance. B. All aerodynamic drag is created entirely by the production of lift. C. Induced drag is a by-product of lift and is greatly affected by changes in airspeed. C 2.5.2.8.1.a.1 N20 GLI At a given airspeed, what effect will an increase in air density have on lift and drag of a glider? A. Lift and drag will decrease. B. Lift will increase but drag will decrease. C. Lift and drag will increase. C 2.5.2.8.2.a.1 N20 GLI Both lift and drag would be increased when which of these devices are extended? A. Flaps. B. Spoilers. C. Slats. A 2.5.2.8.3.a.1 N20 GLI If the airspeed of a glider is increased from 45 MPH to 90 MPH, the parasite drag will be A. two times greater. B. four times greater. C. six times greater. B 2.5.2.8.4.a.1 N20 GLI If the indicated airspeed of a glider is decreased from 90 MPH to 45 MPH, the induced drag will be A. four times less. B. two times greater. C. four times greater. C 2.5.2.8.5.a.1 N20 GLI Which is true regarding wing camber of a glider's airfoil? The camber is A. the same on both the upper and lower wing surface. B. less on the upper wing surface than it is on the lower wing surface. C. greater on the upper wing surface than it is on the lower wing surface. C 2.5.2.8.6.a.1 N20 GLI If the glider's radius of turn is 175 feet at 40 MPH, what would the radius of turn be if the TAS is increased to 80 MPH while maintaining a constant angle of bank? A. 350 feet. B. 525 feet. C. 700 feet. C 2.5.2.8.7.a.1 N20 GLI In regard to the location of the glider's CG and its effect on glider spin characteristics, which is true? If the CG is too far A. aft, a flat spin may develop. B. forward, spin entry will be impossible. C. aft, spins will degenerate into CG high-speed spirals. A 2.5.2.8.8.a.1 N20 GLI The CG of most gliders is located A. ahead of the aerodynamic center of the wing to increase lateral stability. B. ahead of the aerodynamic center of the wing to increase longitudinal stability. C. behind the aerodynamic center of the wing to increase longitudinal stability. X/B 2.5.2.8.9.a.1 N20 GLI Loading a glider so that the CG exceeds the aft limits results in A. excessive load factor in turns. B. excessive upward force on the tail, and causes the nose to pitch down. C. loss of longitudinal stability, and causes the nose to pitch up at slow speeds. C 2.5.2.9.0.a.1 N20 GLI With regard to the effects of spoilers and wing flaps, which is true if the glider's pitch attitude is held constant when such devices are being operated? (Disregard negative flap angles above neutral position.) Retracting flaps A. will reduce the glider's stall speed. B. or extending spoilers will increase the glider's rate of descent. C. or extending spoilers will decrease the glider's rate of descent. B 2.5.2.9.1.a.1 N20 GLI If the angle of attack is increased beyond the critical angle of attack, the wing will no longer produce sufficient lift to support the weight of the glider A. regardless of airspeed or pitch attitude. B. unless the airspeed is greater than the normal stall speed. C. unless the pitch attitude is on or below the natural horizon. A 2.5.2.9.2.a.1 N20 GLI What force causes the glider to turn in flight? A. Vertical component of lift. B. Horizontal component of lift. C. Positive yawing movement of the rudder. B 2.5.2.9.3.a.1 N20 GLI GIVEN: Glider A Wingspan.................................51 ft Average wing chord....................4 ft Glider B Wingspan..................................48 ft Average wing chord..................3.5 ft Determine the correct aspect ratio and its effect on performance at low speeds. A. Glider A has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and will generate less lift with greater drag than glider B. B. Glider B has an aspect ratio of 13.7, and will generate greater lift with less drag than glider A. C. Glider B has an aspect ratio of 12.7, and will generate less lift with greater drag than glider A. B 2.5.2.9.4.a.1 N20 GLI GIVEN: Glider A Wingspan................................48 ft Average wing chord................4.5 ft Glider B Wingspan.................................54 ft Average wing chord.................3.7 ft Determine the correct aspect ratio and its effect on performance at low speeds. A. Glider A has an aspect ratio of 10.6, and will generate greater lift with less drag than will glider B. B. Glider B has an aspect ratio of 14.5, and will generate greater lift with less drag than will glider A. C. Glider B has an aspect ratio of 10.6, and will generate less lift with greater drag than will glider A. B 2.5.2.9.5.a.1 N21 GLI The best L/D ratio of a glider is a value that A. varies depending upon the weight being carried. B. remains constant regardless of airspeed changes. C. remains constant and is independent of the weight being carried. C 2.5.2.9.6.a.1 N21 GLI A glide ratio of 22:1 with respect to the air mass will be A. 11:1 in a tailwind and 44:1 in a headwind. B. 22:1 regardless of wind direction and speed. C. 11:1 in a headwind and 44:1 in a tailwind. B 2.5.2.9.7.a.1 N22 GLI The advantage of total energy compensators is that this system A. includes a speed ring around the rim of the variometer. B. adds the effect of stick thermals to the total energy produced by thermals. C. reduces climb and dive errors on variometer indications caused by airspeed changes. C 2.5.2.9.8.a.1 H51 AIR,RTC,LTA The best power mixture is that fuel/air ratio at which A. cylinder head temperatures are the coolest. B. the most power can be obtained for any given throttle setting. C. a given power can be obtained with the highest manifold pressure or throttle setting. B 2.5.2.9.9.a.1 H51 AIR,RTC,LTA Detonation can be caused by A. too lean a mixture. B. low engine temperatures. C. using a higher grade fuel than recommended. A 2.5.3.0.0.a.1 H66 AIR,RTC What effect, if any, would a change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine engine performance? A. As air density decreases, thrust increases. B. As temperature increases, thrust increases. C. As temperature increases, thrust decreases. C 3.5.3.0.1.a.1 I21 ALL Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of A. a heat exchange. B. the movement of air. C. a pressure differential. A 3.5.3.0.2.a.1 I21 ALL What is the standard temperature at 10,000 feet? A. -5 °C. B. -15 °C. C. +5 °C. A 3.5.3.0.3.a.1 I21 ALL What is the standard temperature at 20,000 feet? A. -15 °C. B. -20 °C. C. -25 °C. C 3.5.3.0.4.a.1 I21 ALL Which conditions are favorable for the formation of a surface based temperature inversion? A. Clear, cool nights with calm or light wind. B. Area of unstable air rapidly transferring heat from the surface. C. Broad areas of cumulus clouds with smooth, level bases at the same altitude. A 3.5.3.0.5.a.1 I22 ALL What are the standard temperature and pressure values for sea level? A. 15 °C and 29.92" Hg. B. 59 °F and 1013.2" Hg. C. 15 °C and 29.92 Mb. A 3.5.3.0.6.a.1 I22 ALL GIVEN: Pressure altitude 12,000 ft True air temperature +50 °F From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A. 11,900 feet. B. 14,130 feet. C. 18,150 feet. B 3.5.3.0.7.a.1 I22 ALL GIVEN: Pressure altitude.................5,000 ft True air temperature............+30 °C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A. 7,800 feet. B. 8,100 feet. C. 8,800 feet. A 3.5.3.0.8.a.1 I22 ALL GIVEN: Pressure altitude.................6,000 ft True air temperature............+30 °F From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A. 9,000 feet. B. 5,500 feet. C. 5,000 feet. B 3.5.3.0.9.a.1 I22 ALL GIVEN: Pressure altitude.................7,000 ft True air temperature............+15 °C From the conditions given, the approximate density altitude is A. 5,000 feet. B. 8,500 feet. C. 9,500 feet. B 3.5.3.1.0.a.1 I23 ALL What causes wind? A. The Earth's rotation. B. Air mass modification. C. Pressure differences. C 3.5.3.1.1.a.1 I23 ALL In the Northern Hemisphere, the wind is deflected to the A. right by Coriolis force. B. right by surface friction. C. left by Coriolis force. A 3.5.3.1.2.a.1 I23 ALL Why does the wind have a tendency to flow parallel to the isobars above the friction level? A. Coriolis force tends to counterbalance the horizontal pressure gradient. B. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to a line connecting the highs and lows. C. Friction of the air with the Earth deflects the air perpendicular to the pressure gradient. A 3.5.3.1.3.a.1 I23 ALL The wind system associated with a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is A. an anticyclone and is caused by descending cold air. B. a cyclone and is caused by Coriolis force. C. an anticyclone and is caused by Coriolis force. B 3.5.3.1.4.a.1 I23 ALL With regard to windflow patterns shown on surface analysis charts; when the isobars are A. close together, the pressure gradient force is slight and wind velocities are weaker. B. not close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger. C. close together, the pressure gradient force is greater and wind velocities are stronger. C 3.5.3.1.5.a.1 I23 ALL What prevents air from flowing directly from high-pressure areas to low-pressure areas? A. Coriolis force. B. Surface friction. C. Pressure gradient force. A 3.5.3.1.6.a.1 I23 ALL While flying cross-country, in the Northern Hemisphere, you experience a continuous left crosswind which is associated with a major wind system. This indicates that you A. are flying toward an area of generally unfavorable weather conditions. B. have flown from an area of unfavorable weather conditions. C. cannot determine weather conditions without knowing pressure changes. A 3.5.3.1.7.a.1 I23 ALL Which is true with respect to a high- or low-pressure system? A. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. B. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of descending air. C. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of descending air. C 3.5.3.1.8.a.1 I23 ALL Which is true regarding high- or low-pressure systems? A. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air. B. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air. C. Both high- and low-pressure areas are characterized by descending air. B 3.5.3.1.9.a.1 I23 ALL When flying into a low-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere, the wind direction and velocity will be from the A. left and decreasing. B. left and increasing. C. right and decreasing. B 3.5.3.2.0.a.1 I24 ALL Which is true regarding actual air temperature and dewpoint temperature spread? The temperature spread A. decreases as the relative humidity decreases. B. decreases as the relative humidity increases. C. increases as the relative humidity increases. B 3.5.3.2.1.a.1 I24 ALL The general circulation of air associated with a high-pressure area in the Northern Hemisphere is A. outward, downward, and clockwise. B. outward, upward, and clockwise. C. inward, downward, and clockwise. A 3.5.3.2.2.a.1 I24 ALL Virga is best described as A. streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds which evaporates before reaching the ground. B. wall cloud torrents trailing beneath cumulonimbus clouds which dissipate before reaching the ground. C. turbulent areas beneath cumulonimbus clouds. A 3.5.3.2.3.a.1 I24 ALL Moisture is added to a parcel of air by A. sublimation and condensation. B. evaporation and condensation. C. evaporation and sublimation. C 3.5.3.2.4.a.1 I24 ALL Ice pellets encountered during flight normally are evidence that A. a warm front has passed. B. a warm front is about to pass. C. there are thunderstorms in the area. B 3.5.3.2.5.a.1 I24 ALL What is indicated if ice pellets are encountered at 8,000 feet? A. Freezing rain at higher altitude. B. You are approaching an area of thunderstorms. C. You will encounter hail if you continue your flight. A 3.5.3.2.6.a.1 I24 ALL Ice pellets encountered during flight are normally evidence that A. a cold front has passed. B. there are thunderstorms in the area. C. freezing rain exists at higher altitudes. C 3.5.3.2.7.a.1 I25 ALL When conditionally unstable air with high-moisture content and very warm surface temperature is forecast, one can expect what type of weather? A. Strong updrafts and stratonimbus clouds. B. Restricted visibility near the surface over a large area. C. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. C 3.5.3.2.8.a.1 I25 ALL What is the approximate base of the cumulus clouds if the temperature at 2,000 feet MSL is 70 °F. and the dewpoint is 52 °F? A. 3,000 feet MSL. B. 4,000 feet MSL. C. 6,000 feet MSL. C 3.5.3.2.9.a.1 I25 ALL If clouds form as a result of very stable, moist air being forced to ascend a mountain slope, the clouds will be A. cirrus type with no vertical development or turbulence. B. cumulus type with considerable vertical development and turbulence. C. stratus type with little vertical development and little or no turbulence. C 3.5.3.3.0.a.1 I25 ALL What determines the structure or type of clouds which will form as a result of air being forced to ascend? A. The method by which the air is lifted. B. The stability of the air before lifting occurs. C. The relative humidity of the air after lifting occurs. B 3.5.3.3.1.a.1 I25 ALL Refer to the excerpt from a surface weather report: ABC ...194/89/45/2115/993... At approximately what altitude AGL should bases of convective-type cumuliform clouds be expected? (Use most accurate method.) A. 4,400 feet. B. 10,000 feet. C. 17,600 feet. B 3.5.3.3.2.a.1 I25 ALL What are the characteristics of stable air? A. Good visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds. B. Poor visibility; steady precipitation; stratus clouds. C. Poor visibility; intermittent precipitation; cumulus clouds. B 3.5.3.3.3.a.1 I25 ALL Which would decrease the stability of an air mass? A. Warming from below. B. Cooling from below. C. Decrease in water vapor. A 3.5.3.3.4.a.1 I25 ALL From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined? A. Atmospheric pressure. B. The ambient lapse rate. C. The dry adiabatic lapse rate. B 3.5.3.3.5.a.1 I25 ALL What type weather can one expect from moist, unstable air, and very warm surface temperatures? A. Fog and low stratus clouds. B. Continuous heavy precipitation. C. Strong updrafts and cumulonimbus clouds. C 3.5.3.3.6.a.1 I25 ALL Which would increase the stability of an air mass? A. Warming from below. B. Cooling from below. C. Decrease in water vapor. B 3.5.3.3.7.a.1 I26 ALL The conditions necessary for the formation of stratiform clouds are a lifting action and A. unstable, dry air. B. stable, moist air. C. unstable, moist air. B 3.5.3.3.8.a.1 I26 ALL Which cloud types would indicate convective turbulence? A. Cirrus clouds. B. Nimbostratus clouds. C. Towering cumulus clouds. C 3.5.3.3.9.a.1 I26 ALL The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of A. lenticular ice formation in calm air. B. very strong turbulence. C. heavy icing conditions. B 3.5.3.4.0.a.1 I27 ALL The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the A. source of lift. B. stability of the air being lifted. C. temperature of the air being lifted. B 3.5.3.4.1.a.1 I27 ALL Which combination of weather-producing variables would likely result in cumuliform-type clouds, good visibility, and showery rain? A. Stable, moist air and orographic lifting. B. Unstable, moist air and orographic lifting. C. Unstable, moist air and no lifting mechanism. B 3.5.3.4.2.a.1 I27 ALL What is a characteristic of stable air? A. Stratiform clouds. B. Fair weather cumulus clouds. C. Temperature decreases rapidly with altitude. A 3.5.3.4.3.a.1 I27 ALL A moist, unstable air mass is characterized by A. poor visibility and smooth air. B. cumuliform clouds and showery precipitation. C. stratiform clouds and continuous precipitation. B 3.5.3.4.4.a.1 I27 ALL When an air mass is stable, which of these conditions are most likely to exist? A. Numerous towering cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds. B. Moderate to severe turbulence at the lower levels. C. Smoke, dust, haze, etc., concentrated at the lower levels with resulting poor visibility. C 3.5.3.4.5.a.1 I27 ALL Which is a characteristic of stable air? A. Cumuliform clouds. B. Excellent visibility. C. Restricted visibility. C 3.5.3.4.6.a.1 I27 ALL Which is a characteristic typical of a stable air mass? A. Cumuliform clouds. B. Showery precipitation. C. Continuous precipitation. C 3.5.3.4.7.a.1 I27 ALL Which is true regarding a cold front occlusion? The air ahead of the warm front A. is colder than the air behind the overtaking cold front. B. is warmer than the air behind the overtaking cold front. C. has the same temperature as the air behind the overtaking cold front. B 3.5.3.4.8.a.1 I27 ALL Which are characteristics of a cold air mass moving over a warm surface? A. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility. B. Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility. C. Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility. B 3.5.3.4.9.a.1 I27 ALL The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and A. unstable, dry air. B. stable, moist air. C. unstable, moist air. C 3.5.3.5.0.a.1 I27 ALL Fog produced by frontal activity is a result of saturation due to A. nocturnal cooling. B. adiabatic cooling. C. evaporation of precipitation. C 3.5.3.5.1.a.1 I28 ALL What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. It is present at only lower levels and exists in a horizontal direction. B. It is present at any level and exists in only a vertical direction. C. It can be present at any level and can exist in both a horizontal and vertical direction. C 3.5.3.5.2.a.1 I28 ALL Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered A. near warm or stationary frontal activity. B. when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots. C. in areas of temperature inversion and near thunderstorms. C 3.5.3.5.3.a.1 I28 ALL Low-level wind shear may occur when A. surface winds are light and variable. B. there is a low-level temperature inversion with strong winds above the inversion. C. surface winds are above 15 knots and there is no change in wind direction and windspeed with height. B 3.5.3.5.4.a.1 I28 ALL If a temperature inversion is encountered immediately after takeoff or during an approach to a landing, a potential hazard exists due to A. wind shear. B. strong surface winds. C. strong convective currents. A 3.5.3.5.5.a.1 I28 ALL GIVEN: Winds at 3,000 feet AGL....................30 kts Surface winds......................................Calm While approaching for landing under clear skies a few hours after sunrise, one should A. allow a margin of approach airspeed above normal to avoid stalling. B. keep the approach airspeed at or slightly below normal to compensate for floating. C. not alter our approach airspeed, these conditions are nearly ideal. A 3.5.3.5.6.a.1 I28 ALL Convective currents are most active on warm summer afternoons when winds are A. light. B. moderate. C. strong. A 3.5.3.5.7.a.1 I28 ALL When flying low over hilly terrain, ridges, or mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from turbulent air currents will usually be encountered on the A. leeward side when flying with a tailwind. B. leeward side when flying into the wind. C. windward side when flying into the wind. B 3.5.3.5.8.a.1 I28 AIR,RTC During an approach, the most important and most easily recognized means of being alerted to possible wind shear is monitoring the A. amount of trim required to relieve control pressures. B. heading changes necessary to remain on the runway centerline. C. power and vertical velocity required to remain on the proper glidepath. C 3.5.3.5.9.a.1 I28 ALL During departure, under conditions of suspected low-level wind shear, a sudden decrease in headwind will cause A. a loss in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. B. a gain in airspeed equal to the decrease in wind velocity. C. no change in airspeed, but groundspeed will decrease. A 3.5.3.6.0.a.1 I29 ALL Which situation would most likely result in freezing precipitation? Rain falling from air which has a temperature of A. 32 °F or less into air having a temperature of more than 32 °F. B. 0 °C or less into air having a temperature of 0 °C or more. C. more than 32 °F into air having a temperature of 32 °F or less. C 3.5.3.6.1.a.1 I30 ALL Which statement is true concerning the hazards of hail? A. Hail damage in horizontal flight is minimal due to the vertical movement of hail in the clouds. B. Rain at the surface is a reliable indication of no hail aloft. C. Hailstones may be encountered in clear air several miles from a thunderstorm. C 3.5.3.6.2.a.1 I30 ALL Hail is most likely to be associated with A. cumulus clouds. B. cumulonimbus clouds. C. stratocumulus clouds. B 3.5.3.6.3.a.1 I30 ALL The most severe weather conditions, such as destructive winds, heavy hail, and tornadoes, are generally associated with A. slow-moving warm fronts which slope above the tropopause. B. squall lines. C. fast-moving occluded fronts. B 3.5.3.6.4.a.1 I30 ALL Of the following, which is accurate regarding turbulence associated with thunderstorms? A. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 50 miles laterally from a severe storm. B. Shear turbulence is encountered only inside cumulonimbus clouds or within a 5-mile radius of them. C. Outside the cloud, shear turbulence can be encountered 20 miles laterally from a severe storm. C 3.5.3.6.5.a.1 I30 ALL If airborne radar is indicating an extremely intense thunderstorm echo, this thunderstorm should be avoided by a distance of at least A. 20 miles. B. 10 miles. C. 5 miles. A 3.5.3.6.6.a.1 I30 ALL Which statement is true regarding squall lines? A. They are always associated with cold fronts. B. They are slow in forming, but rapid in movement. C. They are nonfrontal and often contain severe, steady-state thunderstorms. C 3.5.3.6.7.a.1 I30 ALL Which statement is true concerning squall lines? A. They form slowly, but move rapidly. B. They are associated with frontal systems only. C. They offer the most intense weather hazards to aircraft. C 3.5.3.6.8.a.1 I30 ALL Select the true statement pertaining to the life cycle of a thunderstorm. A. Updrafts continue to develop throughout the dissipating stage of a thunderstorm. B. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the mature stage of the thunderstorm. C. The beginning of rain at the Earth's surface indicates the dissipating stage of the thunderstorm. B 3.5.3.6.9.a.1 I30 ALL What visible signs indicate extreme turbulence in thunderstorms? A. Base of the clouds near the surface, heavy rain, and hail. B. Low ceiling and visibility, hail, and precipitation static. C. Cumulonimbus clouds, very frequent lightning, and roll clouds. C 3.5.3.7.0.a.1 I30 ALL Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? A. The start of rain. B. The appearance of an anvil top. C. Growth rate of cloud is maximum. A 3.5.3.7.1.a.1 I30 ALL What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm? A. Roll cloud. B. Continuous updraft. C. Beginning of rain at the surface. B 3.5.3.7.2.a.1 I30 ALL During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. Mature. B. Developing. C. Dissipating. C 3.5.3.7.3.a.1 I30 ALL What minimum distance should exist between intense radar echoes before any attempt is made to fly between these thunderstorms? A. 20 miles. B. 30 miles. C. 40 miles. C 3.5.3.7.4.a.1 I31 ALL Which in-flight hazard is most commonly associated with warm fronts? A. Advection fog. B. Radiation fog. C. Precipitation-induced fog. C 3.5.3.7.5.a.1 I31 ALL Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions? A. The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions. B. The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes. C. The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes. A 3.5.3.7.6.a.1 I31 ALL A situation most conducive to the formation of advection fog is A. a light breeze moving colder air over a water surface. B. an air mass moving inland from the coastline during the winter. C. a warm, moist air mass settling over a cool surface under no-wind conditions. B 3.5.3.7.7.a.1 I31 ALL Advection fog has drifted over a coastal airport during the day. What may tend to dissipate or lift this fog into low stratus clouds? A. Nighttime cooling. B. Surface radiation. C. Wind 15 knots or stronger. C 3.5.3.7.8.a.1 I31 ALL What lifts advection fog into low stratus clouds? A. Nighttime cooling. B. Dryness of the underlying land mass. C. Surface winds of approximately 15 knots or stronger. C 3.5.3.7.9.a.1 I31 ALL In what ways do advection fog, radiation fog, and steam fog differ in their formation or location? A. Radiation fog is restricted to land areas; advection fog is most common along coastal areas; steam fog forms over a water surface. B. Advection fog deepens as windspeed increases up to 20 knots; steam fog requires calm or very light wind; radiation fog forms when the ground or water cools the air by radiation. C. Steam fog forms from moist air moving over a colder surface; advection fog requires cold air over a warmer surface; radiation fog is produced by radiational cooling of the ground. A 3.5.3.8.0.a.1 I31 ALL With respect to advection fog, which statement is true? A. It is slow to develop, and dissipates quite rapidly. B. It forms almost exclusively at night or near daybreak. C. It can appear suddenly during day or night, and it is more persistent than radiation fog. C 3.5.3.8.1.a.1 I32 ALL Which feature is associated with the tropopause? A. Constant height above the Earth. B. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate. C. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation. B 3.5.3.8.2.a.1 I32 ALL A common location of clear air turbulence is A. in an upper trough on the polar side of a jet stream. B. near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high-pressure flow. C. south of an east/west oriented high-pressure ridge in its dissipating stage. A 3.5.3.8.3.a.1 I32 ALL The jet stream and associated clear air turbulence can sometimes be visually identified in flight by A. dust or haze at flight level. B. long streaks of cirrus clouds. C. a constant outside air temperature. B 3.5.3.8.4.a.1 I32 ALL During the winter months in the middle latitudes, the jet stream shifts toward the A. north and speed decreases. B. south and speed increases. C. north and speed increases. B 3.5.3.8.5.a.1 I32 ALL The strength and location of the jet stream is normally A. weaker and farther north in the summer. B. stronger and farther north in the winter. C. stronger and farther north in the summer. A 3.5.3.8.6.a.1 I35 GLI Select the true statement concerning thermals. A. Thermals are unaffected by winds aloft. B. Strong thermals have proportionately increased sink in the air between them. C. A thermal invariably remains directly above the surface area from which it developed. B 3.5.3.8.7.a.1 I35 GLI A thermal column is rising from an asphalt parking lot and the wind is from the south at 12 knots. Which statement would be true? A. As altitude is gained, the best lift will be found directly above the parking lot. B. As altitude is gained, the center of the thermal will be found farther north of the parking lot. C. The slowest rate of sink would be close to the thermal and the fastest rate of sink farther from it. B 3.5.3.8.8.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding the development of convective circulation? A. Cool air must sink to force the warm air upward. B. Warm air is less dense and rises on its own accord. C. Warmer air covers a larger surface area than the cool air; therefore, the warmer air is less dense and rises. A 3.5.3.8.9.a.1 I35 GLI Which is generally true when comparing the rate of vertical motion of updrafts with that of downdrafts associated with thermals? A. Updrafts and downdrafts move vertically at the same rate. B. Downdrafts have a slower rate of vertical motion than do updrafts. C. Updrafts have a slower rate of vertical motion than do downdrafts. B 3.5.3.9.0.a.1 I35 GLI Which thermal index would predict the best probability of good soaring conditions? A. -10. B. -5. C. +20. A 3.5.3.9.1.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding the effect of fronts on soaring conditions? A. A slow moving front provides the strongest lift. B. Good soaring conditions usually exist after passage of a warm front. C. Frequently, the air behind a cold front provides excellent soaring for several days. C 3.5.3.9.2.a.1 I35 ALL Convective circulation patterns associated with sea breezes are caused by A. water absorbing and radiating heat faster than the land. B. land absorbing and radiating heat faster than the water. C. cool and less dense air moving inland from over the water, causing it to rise. B 3.5.3.9.3.a.1 I35 ALL The conditions most favorable to wave formation over mountainous areas are a layer of A. stable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. B. unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of at least 20 knots blowing across the ridge. C. moist, unstable air at mountaintop altitude and a wind of less than 5 knots blowing across the ridge. A 3.5.3.9.4.a.1 I35 GLI When soaring in the vicinity of mountain ranges, the greatest potential danger from vertical and rotor-type currents will usually be encountered on the A. leeward side when flying with a tailwind. B. leeward side when flying into the wind. C. windward side when flying into the wind. B 3.5.3.9.5.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding ridge soaring with the wind direction perpendicular to the ridge? A. When flying between peaks along a ridge, the pilot can expect a significant decrease in wind and lift. B. When very close to the surface of the ridge, the glider's speed should be reduced to the minimum sink speed. C. If the glider drifts downwind from the ridge and sinks slightly lower than the crest of the ridge, the glider should be turned away from the ridge and a high speed attained. C 3.5.3.9.6.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 6.) With regard to the soundings taken at 1400 hours, between what altitudes could optimum thermalling be expected at the time of the sounding? A. From 2,500 to 6,000 feet. B. From 6,000 to 10,000 feet. C. From 13,000 to 15,000 feet. A 3.5.3.9.7.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 6.) With regard to the soundings taken at 0900 hours, from 2,500 feet to 15,000 feet, as shown on the Adiabatic Chart, what minimum surface temperature is required for instability to occur and for good thermals to develop from the surface to 15,000 feet MSL? A. 58 °F. B. 68 °F. C. 80 °F. C 3.5.3.9.8.a.1 I40 ALL During preflight preparation, weather report forecasts which are not routinely available at the local service outlet (FSS or WSFO) can best be obtained by means of the A. request/reply service. B. air route traffic control center. C. pilot's automatic telephone answering service. A 3.5.3.9.9.a.1 I40 ALL The most current en route and destination weather information for an instrument flight should be obtained from A. the FSS or WSO. B. the ATIS broadcast. C. NOTAM's (Class II). A 3.5.4.0.0.a.1 I40 ALL FSS's in the conterminous 48 U.S. having voice capability on VOR's or radiobeacons (NDB's) broadcast A. AIRMET's and SIGMET's at 15 minutes past the hour and each 15 minutes thereafter as long as they are in effect. B. AIRMET's and Nonconvective SIGMET's at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance. C. hourly weather reports at 15 and 45 minutes past each hour for those reporting stations within approximately 150 NM of the broadcast stations. B 3.5.4.0.1.a.1 I40 ALL Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEB's) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain A. NDB, but not VOR frequencies. B. VOR and NDB frequencies. C. VOR, but not NDB frequencies. B 3.5.4.0.2.a.1 I41 ALL The remarks section of the hourly aviation weather report contains the following coded information: RADAT 87045 What is the meaning of this information? A. Radar echoes with tops at 45,000 feet were observed on the 087 radial of the VORTAC. B. A pilot reported thunderstorms 87 DME miles distance on the 045 radial of the VORTAC. C. Relative humidity was 87 percent and the freezing level (0 °C) was at 4,500 feet MSL. C 3.5.4.0.3.a.1 I41 ALL What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of this Surface Aviation Weather Report for BOI? BOI SP 1854 -X M7 OVC 1 1/2R+F 990/63/61/ 3205/980/RF2 RB12 A. Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky; rain began at 1912. B. Rain and fog obscuring two-tenths of the sky; rain began at 1812. C. Runway fog, visibility 2 miles; base of the rain clouds 1,200 feet. B 3.5.4.0.4.a.1 I41 ALL The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 3,500 feet MSL. If the sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness? M5 OVC 1/2HK 173/73/72/0000/002/OVC 75 A. 2,500 feet. B. 3,500 feet. C. 4,000 feet. B 3.5.4.0.5.a.1 I41 ALL What wind conditions would you anticipate when squalls are reported at your destination? A. Rapid variations in windspeed of 15 knots or more between peaks and lulls. B. Peak gusts of at least 35 knots combined with a change in wind direction of 30° or more. C. Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots to a sustained speed of 20 knots or more for at least 1 minute. C 3.5.4.0.6.a.1 I41 ALL What significant cloud coverage is reported by a pilot in this SA? MOB...M9 OVC 2LF 131/44/43/3212/991/UA/OV 15NW MOB 1355/SK OVC 025/045 OVC 090 A. Three separate overcast layers exist with bases at 2,500, 7,500, and 13,500 feet. B. The top of lower overcast is 2,500 feet; base and top of second overcast layer is 4,500 and 9,000 feet, respectively. C. The base of second overcast layer is 2,500 feet; top of second overcast layer is 7,500 feet; base of third layer is 13,500 feet. B 3.5.4.0.7.a.1 I42 ALL To best determine observed weather conditions between weather reporting stations, the pilot should refer to A. pilot reports. B. Area Forecasts. C. prognostic charts. A 3.5.4.0.8.a.1 I42 ALL Which is true concerning this radar weather report for OKC? OKC 1934 LN 8TRW+/+ 86/40 164/60 199/115 15W 2425 MT 570 AT 159/65 2 INCH HAIL RPRTD THIS ECHO A. There are three cells with tops at 11,500, 40,000, and 60,000 feet. B. The line of cells is moving 080° with winds reported up to 40 knots. C. The maximum top of the cells is 57,000 feet located 65 NM south-southeast of the station. C 3.5.4.0.9.a.1 I43 ALL What is the meaning of the term MVFR, as used in the categorical outlook portion of Terminal and Area Forecasts? A. A ceiling less than 1,000 feet, and/or visibility less than 3 miles. B. A ceiling of 1,000 to 3,000 feet, and/or visibility of 3 to 5 miles. C. A ceiling of 3,000 to 5,000 feet, and visibility of 5 to 7 miles. B 3.5.4.1.0.a.1 I43 ALL The contraction WND in the 6-hour categorical outlook in the Terminal Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be A. 15 to 20 knots. B. less than 25 knots. C. 25 knots or stronger. C 3.5.4.1.1.a.1 I43 ALL Which statement pertaining to a Terminal Forecast is true? The term A. WND in the categorical outlook implies surface winds are forecast to be 10 knots or greater. B. CHC TRW VCNTY in the remarks section pertains to an area within a 5-mile radius of the airport. C. VFR CIGS ABV 100 in the categorical outlook implies ceilings above 10,000 feet and visibility more than 5 miles. C 3.5.4.1.2.a.1 I43 ALL The absence of a visibility entry in a Terminal Forecast specifically implies that the surface visibility is expected to be more than A. 3 miles. B. 6 miles. C. 10 miles. B 3.5.4.1.3.a.1 I43 ALL Terminal Forecasts are issued how many times a day and cover what period of time? A. Three times daily and are valid for 24 hours including a 6-hour categorical outlook. B. Four times daily and are valid for 18 hours including a 4-hour categorical outlook. C. Six times daily and are valid for 12 hours with an additional 6-hour categorical outlook. A 3.5.4.1.4.a.1 I43 ALL Which information is contained in the HAZARDS section of the Area Forecast? A. A summary of general weather conditions for the entire region covered in the Area Forecast. B. A brief list of weather phenomena that meet AIRMET and/or SIGMET criteria and the location of each. C. A brief summary of significant weather and clouds that do not meet AIRMET, but meet SIGMET criteria. B 3.5.4.1.5.a.1 I43 ALL The section of the Area Forecast entitled SGFNT CLOUD AND WX contains a summary of A. forecast sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, and obstructions to vision along specific routes. B. only those weather systems producing liquid or frozen precipitation, fog, thunderstorms, or IFR ceilings. C. sky condition, cloud heights, visibility, weather and/or obstructions to visibility, and surface winds of 30 knots or more. C 3.5.4.1.6.a.1 I43 ALL In the HAZARDS AND FLIGHT PRECAUTIONS section of an Area Forecast, what is indicated by the forecast term - - FLT PRCTNS...IFR...TX AR LA MS TN AL AND CSTL WTRS? A. IFR conditions which meet in-flight advisory criteria are forecast for the states listed. B. Each state and geographic area listed is reporting ceilings and visibilities below VFR minimums. C. IFR conditions, turbulence, and icing are all forecast within the valid period for the listed states. A 3.5.4.1.7.a.1 I43 ALL In the Area Forecast (FA), what method is used to describe the location of each icing phenomenon? A. VOR points outline the affected area(s) within the designated FA boundary, but not beyond the FA boundary. B. State names and portions of states, such as northwest and south central, are used to outline each affected area. C. VOR points are used to outline the area of icing, including VOR points outside the designated FA boundary, if necessary. C 3.5.4.1.8.a.1 I43 ALL What single reference contains information regarding expected frontal movement, turbulence, and icing conditions for a specific area? A. Area Forecast. B. Surface Analysis Chart. C. Weather Depiction Chart. A 3.5.4.1.9.a.1 I43 ALL The National Aviation Weather Advisory Unit prepares FA's for the contiguous U.S. A. twice each day. B. three times each day. C. every 6 hours unless significant changes in weather require it more often. B 3.5.4.2.0.a.1 I43 ALL Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, weather, and obstructions to vision in a route format? A. Area Forecast. B. Terminal Forecast. C. Transcribed Weather Broadcast. C 3.5.4.2.1.a.1 I43 ALL To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross-country flight, a pilot could monitor A. a TWEB on a low-frequency radio receiver. B. the regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency. C. a high-frequency radio receiver tuned to En Route Flight Advisory Service. A 3.5.4.2.2.a.1 I43 ALL SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions which are hazardous A. to all aircraft. B. particularly to heavy aircraft. C. particularly to light airplanes. A 3.5.4.2.3.a.1 I43 ALL Which correctly describes the purpose of convective SIGMET's (WST)? A. They consist of an hourly observation of tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, and large hailstone activity. B. They contain both an observation and a forecast of all thunderstorm and hailstone activity. The forecast is valid for 1 hour only. C. They consist of either an observation and a forecast or just a forecast for tornadoes, significant thunderstorm activity, or hail greater than or equal to 3/4 inch in diameter. C 3.5.4.2.4.a.1 I43 ALL What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts? A. True direction and MPH. B. True direction and knots. C. Magnetic direction and knots. B 3.5.4.2.5.a.1 I43 ALL On a Surface Analysis Chart, the solid lines that depict sea level pressure patterns are called A. isobars. B. isogons. C. millibars. A 3.5.4.2.6.a.1 I44 ALL Dashed lines on a Surface Analysis Chart, if depicted, indicate that the pressure gradient is A. weak. B. strong. C. unstable. A 3.5.4.2.7.a.1 I44 ALL Which chart provides a ready means of locating observed frontal positions and pressure centers? A. Surface Analysis Chart. B. Constant Pressure Analysis Chart. C. Weather Depiction Chart. A 3.5.4.2.8.a.1 I44 ALL On a Surface Analysis Chart, close spacing of the isobars indicates A. weak pressure gradient. B. strong pressure gradient. C. strong temperature gradient. B 3.5.4.2.9.a.1 I44 ALL The Surface Analysis Chart depicts A. frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission. B. actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dewpoint, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart. C. actual pressure distribution, frontal systems, cloud heights and coverage, temperature, dewpoint, and wind at the time shown on the chart. B 3.5.4.3.0.a.1 I45 ALL Which provides a graphic display of both VFR and IFR weather? A. Surface Weather Map. B. Radar Summary Chart. C. Weather Depiction Chart. C 3.5.4.3.1.a.1 I45 ALL When total sky cover is few or scattered, the height shown on the Weather Depiction Chart is the A. top of the lowest layer. B. base of the lowest layer. C. base of the highest layer. B 3.5.4.3.2.a.1 I46 ALL What information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts? A. Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms. B. Ceilings and precipitation between reporting stations. C. Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds. A 3.5.4.3.3.a.1 I47 ALL Which weather chart depicts conditions forecast to exist at a specific time in the future? A. Freezing Level Chart. B. Weather Depiction Chart. C. 12-Hour Significant Weather Prognostication Chart. C 3.5.4.3.4.a.1 I47 ALL What weather phenomenon is implied within an area enclosed by small scalloped lines on a U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart? A. Cirriform clouds, light to moderate turbulence, and icing. B. Cumulonimbus clouds, icing, and moderate or greater turbulence. C. Cumuliform or standing lenticular clouds, moderate to severe turbulence, and icing. B 3.5.4.3.5.a.1 I47 ALL The U.S. High-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart forecasts significant weather for what airspace? A. 18,000 feet to 45,000 feet. B. 24,000 feet to 45,000 feet. C. 24,000 feet to 63,000 feet. C 3.5.4.3.6.a.1 I47 ALL What is the upper limit of the Low Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart? A. 30,000 feet. B. 24,000 feet. C. 18,000 feet. B 3.5.4.3.7.a.1 I49 GLI (Refer to figure 7.) According to the lifted index and K-index shown on the Stability Chart, which area of the U.S. would have the least satisfactory conditions for thermal soaring on the day of the soundings? A. Southeastern. B. North central. C. Western seaboard. B 3.5.4.3.8.a.1 I49 ALL A freezing level panel of the composite moisture stability chart is an analysis of A. forecast freezing level data from surface observations. B. forecast freezing level data from upper air observations. C. observed freezing level data from upper air observations. C 3.5.4.3.9.a.1 I49 ALL The difference found by subtracting the temperature of a parcel of air theoretically lifted from the surface to 500 millibars and the existing temperature at 500 millibars is called the A. lifted index. B. negative index. C. positive index. A 3.5.4.4.0.a.1 I51 ALL Hatching on a Constant Pressure Analysis Chart indicates A. hurricane eye. B. windspeed 70 knots to 110 knots. C. windspeed 110 knots to 150 knots. B 3.5.4.4.1.a.1 I51 ALL What flight planning information can a pilot derive from Constant Pressure Analysis Charts? A. Winds and temperatures aloft. B. Clear air turbulence and icing conditions. C. Frontal systems and obstructions to vision aloft. A 3.5.4.4.2.a.1 I51 ALL From which of the following can the observed temperature, wind, and temperature/ dewpoint spread be determined at a specified altitude? A. Stability Charts. B. Winds Aloft Forecasts. C. Constant Pressure Analysis Charts. C 3.5.4.4.3.a.1 I52 ALL The minimum vertical wind shear value critical for probable moderate or greater turbulence is A. 4 knots per 1,000 feet. B. 6 knots per 1,000 feet. C. 8 knots per 1,000 feet. B 3.5.4.4.4.a.1 I53 ALL A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as A. light chop. B. light turbulence. C. moderate turbulence. B 3.5.4.4.5.a.1 I53 ALL When turbulence causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but aircraft control remains positive, that should be reported as A. light. B. severe. C. moderate. C 3.5.4.4.6.a.1 I53 ALL Turbulence that is encountered above 15,000 feet AGL not associated with cumuliform cloudiness, including thunderstorms, should be reported as A. severe turbulence. B. clear air turbulence. C. convective turbulence. B 3.5.4.4.7.a.1 K02 ALL Which type of jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence? A. A straight jetstream associated with a low-pressure trough. B. A curving jetstream associated with a deep low-pressure trough. C. A jetstream occurring during the summer at the lower latitudes. B 3.5.4.4.8.a.1 K02 ALL A strong wind shear can be expected A. in the jetstream front above a core having a speed of 60 to 90 knots. B. if the 5 °C isotherms are spaced between 7° to 10° of latitude. C. on the low-pressure side of a jetstream core where the speed at the core is stronger than 110 knots. C 3.5.4.4.9.a.1 J33 ALL Low-level wind shear is best described as a A. violently rotating column of air extending from a cumulonimbus cloud. B. change in wind direction and/or speed within a very short distance in the atmosphere. C. downward motion of the air associated with continuous winds blowing with an easterly component due to the rotation of the Earth. B 3.5.4.5.0.a.1 N33 ALL One of the most dangerous features of mountain waves is the turbulent areas in and A. below rotor clouds. B. above rotor clouds. C. below lenticular clouds. A 4.5.4.5.1.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 8.) GIVEN: Fuel quantity.....................................47 gal Power-cruise (lean).....................55 percent Approximately how much flight time would be available with a night VFR fuel reserve remaining? A. 3 hours 8 minutes. B. 3 hours 22 minutes. C. 3 hours 43 minutes. B 4.5.4.5.2.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 8.) GIVEN: Fuel quantity......................................65 gal Best power (level flight)...............55 percent Approximately how much flight time would be available with a day VFR fuel reserve remaining? A. 4 hours 17 minutes. B. 4 hours 30 minutes. C. 5 hours 4 minutes. B 4.5.4.5.3.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 8.) Approximately how much fuel would be consumed when climbing at 75 percent power for 7 minutes? A. 1.82 gallons. B. 1.97 gallons. C. 2.15 gallons. C 4.5.4.5.4.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 8.) Determine the amount of fuel consumed during takeoff and climb at 70 percent power for 10 minutes. A. 2.66 gallons. B. 2.88 gallons. C. 3.2 gallons. B 4.5.4.5.5.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 8.) With 38 gallons of fuel aboard at cruise power (55 percent), how much flight time is available with night VFR fuel reserve still remaining? A. 2 hours 34 minutes. B. 2 hours 49 minutes. C. 3 hours 18 minutes. A 4.5.4.5.6.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 9.) Using a normal climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 12,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight...............................3,800 lb Airport pressure altitude.................4,000 ft Temperature......................................26 °C A. 46 pounds. B. 51 pounds. C. 58 pounds. C 4.5.4.5.7.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 9.) Using a normal climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 10,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight................................3,500 lb Airport pressure altitude..................4,000 ft Temperature........................................21 °C A. 23 pounds. B. 31 pounds. C. 35 pounds. C 4.5.4.5.8.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 10.) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 6,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight................................3,200 lb Airport pressure altitude..................2,000 ft Temperature........................................27 °C A. 10 pounds. B. 14 pounds. C. 24 pounds. C 4.5.4.5.9.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 10.) Using a maximum rate of climb, how much fuel would be used from engine start to 10,000 feet pressure altitude? Aircraft weight.................................3,800 lb Airport pressure altitude...................4,000 ft Temperature.........................................30 °C A. 28 pounds. B. 35 pounds. C. 40 pounds. C 4.5.4.6.0.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 11.) If the cruise altitude is 7,500 feet, using 64 percent power at 2,500 RPM, what would be the range with 48 gallons of usable fuel? A. 635 miles. B. 645 miles. C. 810 miles. C 4.5.4.6.1.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 11.) What would be the endurance at an altitude of 7,500 feet, using 52 percent power? NOTE: (With 48 gallons fuel-no reserve.) A. 6.1 hours. B. 7.7 hours. C. 8.0 hours. B 4.5.4.6.2.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 11.) What would be the approximate true airspeed and fuel consumption per hour at an altitude of 7,500 feet, using 52 percent power? A. 103 MPH TAS, 7.7 GPH. B. 105 MPH TAS, 6.1 GPH. C. 105 MPH TAS, 6.2 GPH. C 4.5.4.6.3.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 12.) GIVEN: Pressure altitude.....................................18,000 ft Temperature...............................................-21 °C Power...................................2,400 RPM - 28" MP Recommended lean mixture usable fuel.......425 lb What is the approximate flight time available under the given conditions? (Allow for VFR day fuel reserve.) A. 3 hours 46 minutes. B. 4 hours 1 minute. C. 4 hours 31 minutes. B 4.5.4.6.4.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 12.) GIVEN: Pressure altitude......................................18,000 ft Temperature................................................-41 °C Power....................................2,500 RPM - 26" MP Recommended lean mixture usable fuel........318 lb What is the approximate flight time available under the given conditions? (Allow for VFR night fuel reserve.) A. 2 hours 27 minutes. B. 3 hours 12 minutes. C. 3 hours 42 minutes. A 4.5.4.6.5.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 12.) GIVEN: Pressure altitude.......................................18,000 ft Temperature...................................................-1 °C Power.....................................2,200 RPM - 20" MP Best fuel economy usable fuel........................344 lb What is the approximate flight time available under the given conditions? (Allow for VFR day fuel reserve.) A. 4 hours 50 minutes. B. 5 hours 20 minutes. C. 5 hours 59 minutes. C 4.5.4.6.6.a.1 H04 AIR An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions: Cruising altitude.........................................6,500 ft Airport elevation............................................700 ft Descends to............................................800 ft AGL Rate of descent........................................500 ft/min Average true airspeed...................................110 kts True course......................................................335° Average wind velocity........................060° at 15 kts Variation..........................................................3°W Deviation...........................................................+2° Average fuel consumption........................8.5 gal/hr Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the descent. A. 10 minutes, 348°, 18 NM, 1.4 gallons. B. 10 minutes, 355°, 17 NM, 2.4 gallons. C. 12 minutes, 346°, 18 NM, 1.6 gallons. A 4.5.4.6.7.a.1 H04 AIR An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions: Cruising altitude.........................................7,500 ft Airport elevation.........................................1,300 ft Descends to............................................800 ft AGL Rate of descent........................................300 ft/min Average true airspeed...................................120 kts True course......................................................165° Average wind velocity........................240° at 20 kts Variation............................................................4°E Deviation............................................................-2° Average fuel consumption.........................9.6 gal/hr Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the descent. A. 16 minutes, 168°, 30 NM, 2.9 gallons. B. 18 minutes, 164°, 34 NM, 3.2 gallons. C. 18 minutes, 168°, 34 NM, 2.9 gallons. C 4.5.4.6.8.a.1 H04 AIR An airplane descends to an airport under the following conditions: Cruising altitude.......................................10,500 ft Airport elevation........................................1,700 ft Descends to........................................1,000 ft AGL Rate of descent.......................................600 ft/min Average true airspeed..................................135 kts True course.....................................................263° Average wind velocity.......................330° at 30 kts Variation...........................................................7°E Deviation..........................................................+3° Average fuel consumption......................11.5 gal/hr Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the descent. A. 9 minutes, 274°, 26 NM, 2.8 gallons. B. 13 minutes, 274°, 28 NM, 2.5 gallons. C. 13 minutes, 271°, 26 NM, 2.5 gallons. C 4.5.4.6.9.a.1 H06 AIR If fuel consumption is 80 pounds per hour and groundspeed is 180 knots, how much fuel is required for an airplane to travel 460 NM? A. 205 pounds. B. 212 pounds. C. 460 pounds. A 4.5.4.7.0.a.1 H06 AIR If an airplane is consuming 95 pounds of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6,500 feet and the groundspeed is 173 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 450 NM? A. 248 pounds. B. 265 pounds. C. 284 pounds. A 4.5.4.7.1.a.1 H06 AIR If an airplane is consuming 12.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 8,500 feet and the groundspeed is 145 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 435 NM? A. 27 gallons. B. 34 gallons. C. 38 gallons. C 4.5.4.7.2.a.1 H06 AIR If an airplane is consuming 9.5 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 6,000 feet and the groundspeed is 135 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 490 NM? A. 27 gallons. B. 30 gallons. C. 35 gallons. C 4.5.4.7.3.a.1 H06 AIR If an airplane is consuming 14.8 gallons of fuel per hour at a cruising altitude of 7,500 feet and the groundspeed is 167 knots, how much fuel is required to travel 560 NM? A. 50 gallons. B. 53 gallons. C. 57 gallons. A 4.5.4.7.4.a.1 H06 AIR If fuel consumption is 14.7 gallons per hour and groundspeed is 157 knots, how much fuel is required for an airplane to travel 612 NM? A. 58 gallons. B. 60 gallons. C. 64 gallons. A 4.5.4.7.5.a.1 H06 AIR,RTC GIVEN: True course 105° True heading 085° True airspeed 95 kts Groundspeed 87 kts Determine the wind direction and speed. A. 020° and 32 knots. B. 030° and 38 knots. C. 200° and 32 knots. A 4.5.4.7.6.a.1 H06 AIR,RTC GIVEN: True course 345° True heading 355° True airspeed 85 kts Groundspeed 95 kts Determine the wind direction and speed. A. 095° and 19 knots. B. 113° and 19 knots. C. 238° and 18 knots. B 4.5.4.7.7.a.1 H06 AIR,RTC You have flown 52 miles, are 6 miles off course, and have 118 miles yet to fly. To converge on your destination, the total correction angle would be A. 3°. B. 6°. C. 10°. C 4.5.4.7.8.a.1 H06 ALL GIVEN: Distance off course...............................9 mi Distance flown....................................95 mi Distance to fly...................................125 mi To converge at the destination, the total correction angle would be A. 4°. B. 6°. C. 10°. C 4.5.4.7.9.a.1 H07 ALL True course measurements on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart should be made at a meridian near the midpoint of the course because the A. values of isogonic lines change from point to point. B. angles formed by isogonic lines and lines of latitude vary from point to point. C. angles formed by lines of longitude and the course line vary from point to point. C 4.5.4.8.0.a.1 H07 LTA (Refer to figure 52, point A.) GIVEN: Departure point...............................Georgetown Airport (Q61) Departure time..................................................................0637 Winds aloft forecast (FD) at your altitude..........................1008 At 0755, the balloon should be A. over Auburn Airport (AUN). B. over the town of Auburn. C. slightly west of the town of Garden Valley. A 4.5.4.8.1.a.1 H07 AIR,RTC GIVEN: Wind.....................................175° at 20 kts Distance .........................................135 NM True course..........................................075° True airspeed.....................................80 kts Fuel consumption..........................105 lb/hr Determine the time en route and fuel consumption. A. 1 hour 28 minutes and 73.2 pounds. B. 1 hour 38 minutes and 158 pounds. C. 1 hour 40 minutes and 175 pounds. C 4.5.4.8.2.a.1 H07 AIR (Refer to figure 13.) GIVEN: Aircraft weight.................................3,400 lb Airport pressure altitude...................6,000 ft Temperature at 6,000 feet....................10 °C Using a maximum rate of climb under the given conditions, how much fuel would be used from engine start to a pressure altitude of 16,000 feet? A. 43 pounds. B. 45 pounds. C. 49 pounds. A 4.5.4.8.3.a.1 H07 AIR (Refer to figure 13.) GIVEN: Aircraft weight................................4,000 lb Airport pressure altitude..................2,000 ft Temperature at 2,000 feet...................32 °C Using a maximum rate of climb under the given conditions, how much time would be required to climb to a pressure altitude of 8,000 feet? A. 7 minutes. B. 8.4 minutes. C. 11.2 minutes. B 4.5.4.8.4.a.1 H07 AIR (Refer to figure 14.) GIVEN: Aircraft weight.................................3,700 lb Airport pressure altitude...................4,000 ft Temperature at 4,000 feet....................21 °C Using a normal climb under the given conditions, how much fuel would be used from engine start to a pressure altitude of 12,000 feet? A. 30 pounds. B. 37 pounds. C. 46 pounds. C 4.5.4.8.5.a.1 H07 AIR (Refer to figure 14.) GIVEN: Weight.............................................3,400 lb Airport pressure altitude...................4,000 ft Temperature at 4,000 feet....................14 °C Using a normal climb under the given conditions, how much time would be required to climb to a pressure altitude of 8,000 feet? A. 4.8 minutes. B. 5 minutes. C. 5.5 minutes. C 4.5.4.8.6.a.1 H07 AIR (Refer to figure 15.) GIVEN: Airport pressure altitude...................4,000 ft Airport temperature.............................12 °C Cruise pressure altitude....................9,000 ft Cruise temperature...............................-4 °C What will be the distance required to climb to cruise altitude under the given conditions? A. 6 miles. B. 8.5 miles. C. 11 miles. B 4.5.4.8.7.a.1 H07 AIR (Refer to figure 15.) GIVEN: Airport pressure altitude...................2,000 ft Airport temperature..............................20 °C Cruise pressure altitude...................10,000 ft Cruise temperature.................................0 °C What will be the fuel, time, and distance required to climb to cruise altitude under the given conditions? A. 5 gallons, 9 minutes, 13 NM. B. 6 gallons, 11 minutes, 16 NM. C. 7 gallons, 12 minutes, 18 NM. A 4.5.4.8.8.a.1 H07 AIR An airplane departs an airport under the following conditions: Airport elevation..............................1,000 ft Cruise altitude..................................9,500 ft Rate of climb................................500 ft/min Average true airspeed........................135 kts True course...........................................215° Average wind velocity.............290° at 20 kts Variation...............................................3°W Deviation.................................................-2° Average fuel consumption..............13 gal/hr Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the climb. A. 14 minutes, 234°, 26 NM, 3.9 gallons. B. 17 minutes, 224°, 36 NM, 3.7 gallons. C. 17 minutes, 242°, 31 NM, 3.5 gallons. B 4.5.4.8.9.a.1 H07 AIR An airplane departs an airport under the following conditions: Airport elevation.............................1,500 ft Cruise altitude.................................9,500 ft Rate of climb...............................500 ft/min Average true airspeed.......................160 kts True course..........................................145° Average wind velocity............080° at 15 kts Variation...............................................5°E Deviation................................................-3° Average fuel consumption..............14 gal/hr Determine the approximate time, compass heading, distance, and fuel consumed during the climb. A. 14 minutes, 128°, 35 NM, 3.2 gallons. B. 16 minutes, 132°, 41 NM, 3.7 gallons. C. 16 minutes, 128°, 32 NM, 3.8 gallons. B 4.5.4.9.0.a.1 H07 ALL Which is true about homing when using ADF during crosswind conditions? Homing A. to a radio station results in a curved path that leads to the station. B. is a practical navigation method for flying both to and from a radio station. C. to a radio station requires that the ADF have an automatically or manually rotatable azimuth. A 4.5.4.9.1.a.1 H07 ALL Which is true regarding tracking on a desired bearing when using ADF during crosswind conditions? A. To track outbound, heading corrections should be made away from the ADF pointer. B. When on the desired track outbound with the proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to the windward side of the tail position. C. When on the desired track inbound with the proper drift correction established, the ADF pointer will be deflected to the windward side of the nose position. B 4.5.4.9.2.a.1 H07 ALL An aircraft is maintaining a magnetic heading of 265° and the ADF shows a relative bearing of 065°. This indicates that the aircraft is crossing the A. 065° magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon. B. 150° magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon. C. 330° magnetic bearing FROM the radio beacon. B 4.5.4.9.3.a.1 H07 ALL The magnetic heading is 315° and the ADF shows a relative bearing of 140°. The magnetic bearing FROM the radiobeacon would be A. 095°. B. 175°. C. 275°. C 4.5.4.9.4.a.1 H07 ALL The magnetic heading is 350° and the relative bearing to a radiobeacon is 240°. What would be the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon? A. 050°. B. 230°. C. 295°. B 4.5.4.9.5.a.1 H07 ALL The ADF is tuned to a radiobeacon. If the magnetic heading is 040° and the relative bearing is 290°, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be A. 150°. B. 285°. C. 330°. C 4.5.4.9.6.a.1 H07 ALL If the relative bearing to a nondirectional radiobeacon is 045° and the magnetic heading is 355°, the magnetic bearing TO that radiobeacon would be A. 040°. B. 065°. C. 220°. A 4.5.4.9.7.a.1 H07 ALL (Refer to figure 16.) If the aircraft continues its present heading as shown in instrument group 3, what will be the relative bearing when the aircraft reaches the magnetic bearing of 030° FROM the NDB? A. 030°. B. 060°. C. 240°. C 4.5.4.9.8.a.1 H07 ALL (Refer to figure 16.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, what would be the relative bearing if the aircraft were turned to a magnetic heading of 090°? A. 150°. B. 190°. C. 250°. C 4.5.4.9.9.a.1 H07 ALL (Refer to figure 16.) At the position indicated by instrument group 1, to intercept the 330° magnetic bearing to the NDB at a 30° angle, the aircraft should be turned A. left to a heading of 270°. B. right to a heading of 330°. C. right to a heading of 360°. C 4.5.5.0.0.a.1 H07 ALL Which situation would result in reverse sensing of a VOR receiver? A. Flying a heading that is reciprocal to the bearing selected on the OBS. B. Setting the OBS to a bearing that is 90° from the bearing on which the aircraft is located. C. Failing to change the OBS from the selected inbound course to the outbound course after passing the station. A 4.5.5.0.1.a.1 H07 ALL To track outbound on the 180 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to A. 360° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. B. 180° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. C. 180° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. C 4.5.5.0.2.a.1 H07 ALL To track inbound on the 215 radial of a VOR station, the recommended procedure is to set the OBS to A. 215° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. B. 215° and make heading corrections away from the CDI needle. C. 035° and make heading corrections toward the CDI needle. C 4.5.5.0.3.a.1 H61 ALL When diverting to an alternate airport because of an emergency, pilots should A. rely upon radio as the primary method of navigation. B. climb to a higher altitude because it will be easier to identify checkpoints. C. apply rule-of-thumb computations, estimates, and other appropriate shortcuts to divert to the new course as soon as possible. C 4.5.5.0.4.a.1 H61 ALL To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating your position, you must have an operative VHF A. transmitter and receiver. B. transmitter and receiver, and an operative ADF receiver. C. transmitter and receiver, and an operative VOR receiver. A 4.5.5.0.5.a.1 H66 ALL Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases? A. Altitude. B. Airspeed. C. Angle of attack. B 4.5.5.0.6.a.1 I04 ALL (Refer to figure 17.) Which illustration indicates that the airplane will intercept the 360 radial at a 60° angle inbound, if the present heading is maintained? A. 3. B. 4. C. 5. A 4.5.5.0.7.a.1 I04 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 17.) Which statement is true regarding illustration 2, if the present heading is maintained? The airplane will A. cross the 180 radial at a 45° angle outbound. B. intercept the 225 radial at a 45° angle. C. intercept the 360 radial at a 45° angle inbound. X/C 4.5.5.0.8.a.1 I04 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 17.) Which illustration indicates that the airplane will intercept the 060 radial at a 75° angle outbound, if the present heading is maintained? A. 4. B. 5. C. 6. B 4.5.5.0.9.a.1 I04 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 17.) Which illustration indicates that the airplane should be turned 150° left to intercept the 360 radial at a 60° angle inbound? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. A 4.5.5.1.0.a.1 I04 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 17.) Which is true regarding illustration 4, if the present heading is maintained? The airplane will A. cross the 060 radial at a 15° angle. B. intercept the 240 radial at a 30° angle. C. cross the 180 radial at a 75° angle. C 4.5.5.1.1.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 18.) To intercept a magnetic bearing of 240° FROM at a 030° angle (while outbound), the airplane should be turned A. left 065°. B. left 125°. C. right 270°. B 4.5.5.1.2.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 18.) If the airplane continues to fly on the heading as shown, what magnetic bearing FROM the station would be intercepted at a 35°angle outbound? A. 035°. B. 070°. C. 215°. B 4.5.5.1.3.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 19.) If the airplane continues to fly on the magnetic heading as illustrated, what magnetic bearing FROM the station would be intercepted at a 35°angle? A. 090°. B. 270°. C. 305°. C 4.5.5.1.4.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 19.) If the airplane continues to fly on the magnetic heading as illustrated, what magnetic bearing FROM the station would be intercepted at a 30°angle? A. 090°. B. 270°. C. 310°. C 4.5.5.1.5.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA The relative bearing on an ADF changes from 265° to 260° in 2 minutes of elapsed time. If the groundspeed is 145 knots, the distance to that station would be A. 26 NM. B. 37 NM. C. 58 NM. C 4.5.5.1.6.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC The ADF indicates a wingtip bearing change of 10° in 2 minutes of elapsed time, and the TAS is 160 knots. What is the distance to the station? A. 15 NM. B. 32 NM. C. 36 NM. B 4.5.5.1.7.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC With a TAS of 115 knots, the relative bearing on an ADF changes from 090° to 095° in 1.5 minutes of elapsed time. The distance to the station would be A. 12.5 NM. B. 24.5 NM. C. 34.5 NM. C 4.5.5.1.8.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change...................................5° Time elapsed between bearing change.........5 min True airspeed............................................115 kts The distance to the station is A. 36 NM. B. 57.5 NM. C. 115 NM. C 4.5.5.1.9.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing changes from 095° to 100° in 1.5 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to that station would be A. 18 minutes. B. 24 minutes. C. 30 minutes. A 4.5.5.2.0.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing changes from 270° to 265° in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to that beacon would be A. 9 minutes. B. 18 minutes. C. 30 minutes. C 4.5.5.2.1.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing changes from 085° to 090° in 2 minutes of elapsed time. The time en route to the station would be A. 15 minutes. B. 18 minutes. C. 24 minutes. C 4.5.5.2.2.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC If the relative bearing changes from 090° to 100° in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time, the time en route to the station would be A. 12 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 18 minutes. B 4.5.5.2.3.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC The ADF is tuned to a nondirectional radiobeacon and the relative bearing changes from 090° to 100° in 2.5 minutes of elapsed time. If the true airspeed is 90 knots, the distance and time en route to that radiobeacon would be A. 15 miles and 22.5 minutes. B. 22.5 miles and 15 minutes. C. 32 miles and 18 minutes. B 4.5.5.2.4.a.1 I08 AIR GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change.................................10° Elapsed time between bearing change.........4 min Rate of fuel consumption........................11 gal/hr Calculate the fuel required to fly to the station. A. 4.4 gallons. B. 8.4 gallons. C. 12 gallons. A 4.5.5.2.5.a.1 I08 AIR GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change.........................................5° Elapsed time between bearing change...............6 min Rate of fuel consumption.............................12 gal/hr The fuel required to fly to the station is A. 8.2 gallons. B. 14.4 gallons. C. 18.7 gallons. B 4.5.5.2.6.a.1 I08 AIR GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change......................................15° Elapsed time between bearing change..............6 min Rate of fuel consumption............................8.6 gal/hr Calculate the approximate fuel required to fly to the station. A. 3.44 gallons. B. 6.88 gallons. C. 17.84 gallons. A 4.5.5.2.7.a.1 I08 AIR GIVEN: Wingtip bearing change......................................15° Elapsed time between bearing change...........7.5 min True airspeed..................................................85 kts Rate of fuel consumption...........................9.6 gal/hr The time, distance, and fuel required to fly to the station is A. 30 minutes; 42.5 miles; 4.80 gallons. B. 32 minutes; 48 miles; 5.58 gallons. C. 48 minutes; 48 miles; 4.58 gallons. A 4.5.5.2.8.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 15° doubles in 6 minutes. The time to the station being used is A. 3 minutes. B. 6 minutes. C. 12 minutes. B 4.5.5.2.9.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC While maintaining a constant heading, the ADF needle increases from a relative bearing of 045° to 090° in 5 minutes. The time to the station being used is A. 5 minutes. B. 10 minutes. C. 15 minutes. A 4.5.5.3.0.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC While cruising at 135 knots and on a constant heading, the ADF needle decreases from a relative bearing of 315° to 270° in 7 minutes. The approximate time and distance to the station being used is A. 7 minutes and 16 miles. B. 14 minutes and 28 miles. C. 19 minutes and 38 miles. A 4.5.5.3.1.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC While maintaining a constant heading, a relative bearing of 10° doubles in 5 minutes. If the true airspeed is 105 knots, the time and distance to the station being used is approximately A. 5 minutes and 8.7 miles. B. 10 minutes and 17 miles. C. 15 minutes and 31.2 miles. A 4.5.5.3.2.a.1 I08 ALL When checking the course sensitivity of a VOR receiver, how many degrees should the OBS be rotated to move the CDI from the center to the last dot on either side? A. 5° to 10°. B. 10° to 12°. C. 18° to 20°. B 4.5.5.3.3.a.1 I08 ALL An aircraft 60 miles from a VOR station has a CDI indication of one-fifth deflection, this represents a course centerline deviation of approximately A. 6 miles. B. 2 miles. C. 1 mile. B 4.5.5.3.4.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Using instrument group 3, if the aircraft makes a 180° turn to the left and continues straight ahead, it will intercept which radial? A. 135 radial. B. 270 radial. C. 360 radial. A 4.5.5.3.5.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft in a position where a 180° turn would result in the aircraft intercepting the 150 radial at a 30° angle? A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. C 4.5.5.3.6.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft in a position where a straight course after a 90° left turn would result in intercepting the 180 radial? A. 2. B. 3. C. 4. B 4.5.5.3.7.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument shows the aircraft to be northwest of the VORTAC? A. 1. B. 2. C. 3. B 4.5.5.3.8.a.1 I08 ALL (Refer to figure 20.) Which instrument(s) show(s) that the aircraft is getting further from the selected VORTAC? A. 4. B. 1 and 4. C. 2 and 3. A 4.5.5.3.9.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA While maintaining a magnetic heading of 270° and a true airspeed of 120 knots, the 360 radial of a VOR is crossed at 1237 and the 350 radial is crossed at 1244. The approximate time and distance to this station are A. 42 minutes and 84 NM. B. 42 minutes and 91 NM. C. 44 minutes and 96 NM. A 4.5.5.4.0.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 21.) If the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 13 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station? A. 13 minutes. B. 17 minutes. C. 26 minutes. A 4.5.5.4.1.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 22.) If the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 8 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station? A. 8 minutes. B. 16 minutes. C. 48 minutes. A 4.5.5.4.2.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 23.) If the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 13 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station? A. 7.8 minutes. B. 13 minutes. C. 26 minutes. B 4.5.5.4.3.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figure 24.) If the time flown between aircraft positions 2 and 3 is 15 minutes, what is the estimated time to the station? A. 15 minutes. B. 30 minutes. C. 60 minutes. A 4.5.5.4.4.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA Inbound on the 040 radial, a pilot selects the 055 radial, turns 15° to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 15 minutes. Based on this information, the ETE to the station is A. 8 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 30 minutes. B 4.5.5.4.5.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA Inbound on the 090 radial, a pilot rotates the OBS 010° to the left, turns 010° to the right, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot determines that the elapsed time for the CDI to center is 8 minutes. Based on this information, the ETE to the station is A. 8 minutes. B. 16 minutes. C. 24 minutes. A 4.5.5.4.6.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA Inbound on the 315 radial, a pilot selects the 320 radial, turns 5° to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 12 minutes. The ETE to the station is A. 10 minutes. B. 12 minutes. C. 24 minutes. B 4.5.5.4.7.a.1 I08 AIR,RTC,LTA Inbound on the 190 radial, a pilot selects the 195 radial, turns 5° to the left, and notes the time. While maintaining a constant heading, the pilot notes the time for the CDI to center is 10 minutes. The ETE to the station is A. 10 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes. A 4.5.5.4.8.a.1 I10 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 25 and 25A.) During the ILS RWY 13L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative? A. 1,420 feet. B. 1,360 feet. C. 1,121 feet. B 4.5.5.4.9.a.1 I10 AIR,RTC,LTA What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate? A. A procedure turn is not authorized. B. Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized. C. Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized. A 4.5.5.5.0.a.1 I10 AIR,RTC,LTA When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply? A. Standard alternate minimums. B. The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport. C. The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected. C 4.5.5.5.1.a.1 J01 ALL How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface? A. Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication. B. Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication. C. With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication. B 4.5.5.5.2.a.1 J01 ALL When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the A. 090 radial. B. 180 radial. C. 360 radial. C 4.5.5.5.3.a.1 J01 ALL When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the TO/FROM indicator should read A. within 4° of the selected radial. B. within 6° of the selected radial. C. 0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR. B 4.5.5.5.4.a.1 J08 LTA (Refer to figure 52, point B.) GIVEN: Sacramento (SAC) tower reports wind......290 at 8 kts Highest flight altitude................................1,400 MSL If you depart for a 2-hour balloon flight, which situation best describes what ATC might require of you. A. Your flight path will require no communication with Sacramento Approach Control. B. You must communicate with Sacramento Approach Control because you will enter the Alert Area. C. You will have to contact Sacramento Approach Control. A 4.5.5.5.5.a.1 J15 LTA For airship IFR operations off established airways, ROUTE OF FLIGHT portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR navigational aids which are no more than A. 40 miles apart. B. 70 miles apart. C. 80 miles apart. C 4.5.5.5.6.a.1 J16 AIR,RTC,LTA Which is true regarding the use of a Standard Instrument Departure (SID) chart? A. At airfields where SID's have been established, SID usage is mandatory for IFR departures. B. To use a SID, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure. C. To use a SID, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard departure. B 4.5.5.5.7.a.1 J17 AIR,RTC,LTA Which is true regarding STAR's? STAR's are A. used to separate IFR and VFR traffic. B. established to simplify clearance delivery procedures. C. used at certain airports to decrease traffic congestion. B 4.5.5.5.8.a.1 J18 AIR,RTC,LTA While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until A. reaching the FAF. B. advised to begin descent. C. established on a segment of a published route or instrument approach procedure. C 4.5.5.5.9.a.1 J25 ALL Flight Service Stations in the conterminous 48 United States having voice capability on VOR's or radiobeacons (NDB's) broadcast A. AIRMET's and SIGMET's at 15 minutes past the hour and each 15 minutes thereafter as long as they are in effect. B. AIRMET's and Nonconvective SIGMET's upon receipt and at 15 minutes and 45 minutes past the hour for the first hour after issuance. C. hourly weather reports at 15 and 45 minutes past each hour for those reporting stations within approximately 150 NM of the broadcast stations. B 4.5.5.6.0.a.1 J25 ALL To obtain a continuous transcribed weather briefing including winds aloft and route forecasts for a cross- country flight, a pilot could monitor A. a TWEB on a low-frequency radio receiver. B. the regularly scheduled weather broadcast on a VOR frequency. C. a high-frequency radio receiver tuned to En Route Flight Advisory Service. A 4.5.5.6.1.a.1 J33 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 26 and 26A.) The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at A. DENAY Intersection. B. Glide slope intercept. C. ROMEN Intersection/Locator outer marker. B 4.5.5.6.2.a.1 J33 LTA When operating an airship under IFR with a VFR-on-top clearance, what altitude should be maintained? A. The last IFR altitude assigned by ATC. B. An IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown. C. A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC. C 4.5.5.6.3.a.1 J33 LTA Does the ATC term ``cleared to cruise'' apply to airship IFR operations? A. No, this term applies to airplane IFR operations only. B. Yes, it means that any assigned altitude can be vacated without notifying ATC. C. Yes, in part, it authorizes the pilot to commence the approach at the destination airport at the pilot's discretion. C 4.5.5.6.4.a.1 J37 ALL Which is true relating to the blue and magenta colors used to depict airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts? A. Class E airports are shown in blue; Class C and D are magenta. B. Class B airports are shown in blue; Class D and E are magenta. C. Class E airports are shown in magenta; Class B, C, and D are blue. C 4.5.5.6.5.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point A.) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown Airport (Q61) is at A. the surface. B. 3,788 feet MSL. C. 700 feet AGL. B 4.5.5.6.6.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point G.) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is A. 700 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. B. 1,200 feet AGL over part of the town and no floor over the remainder. C. both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL. C 4.5.5.6.7.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point E.) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (0O5) is A. the surface. B. 700 feet AGL. C. 1,200 feet AGL. B 4.5.5.6.8.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point H.) The floor of the Class E airspace over the town of Auburn is A. 1,200 feet MSL. B. 700 feet AGL. C. 1,200 feet AGL. C 4.5.5.6.9.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 53, point A.) This thin black shaded line is most likely A. an arrival route. B. a military training route. C. a state boundary line. B 4.5.5.7.0.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 53, point B.) The 16 indicates A. an antenna top at 1,600 feet AGL. B. the maximum elevation figure for that quadrangle. C. the minimum safe sector altitude for that quadrangle. B 4.5.5.7.1.a.1 J37 LTA (Refer to figure 53, point C.) If at 1,000 feet MSL and drifting at 10 knots toward Firebaugh Airport (Q49), at what approximate distance from the airport should you begin a 100 ft/min ascent to arrive at the center of the airport at 3,000 feet? A. 3.5 NM. B. 5 NM. C. 8 NM. A 4.5.5.7.2.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point A.) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore Airport (LVK) Class D airspace? A. 2,503 feet MSL. B. 2,901 feet MSL. C. 3,297 feet MSL. B 4.5.5.7.3.a.1 J37 LTA (Refer to figure 54, point E.) A balloon drifts over the town of Brentwood on a magnetic course of 185° at 10 knots. If wind conditions remain the same, after 1 hour 30 minutes the pilot A. with no radio aboard, must be above 2,900 feet MSL and must have an operating transponder aboard. B. must remain above 600 feet MSL for national security reasons. C. with no radio aboard, must be above 2,900 feet MSL. A 4.5.5.7.4.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point A.) Flight over Livermore Airport (LVK) at 3000 feet MSL A. requires a transponder, but ATC communication is not necessary. B. does not require a transponder or ATC communication. C. cannot be accomplished without meeting all Class B airspace requirements. X/A 4.5.5.7.5.a.1 J37 AIR (Refer to figure 52, point I.) The rectangular blue box depicted is airspace within which A. there is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. B. the flight of aircraft is prohibited. C. the flight of aircraft, while not prohibited, is subject to restriction. A 4.5.5.7.6.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point D.) The thinner outer blue circle depicted around San Francisco International Airport is A. the outer segment of Class B airspace. B. an area within which an appropriate transponder must be used from outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL. C. a Mode C veil boundary where an aircraft may penetrate without a transponder provided it remains below 8,000 feet. B 4.5.5.7.7.a.1 J37 ALL When fixed wing Special Visual Flight Rules (SVFR) operation is prohibited at an airport, the sectional aeronautical chart will A. depict ``TTTT'' symbols in a circular fashion around that airport. B. State ``No SVFR'' near the airport symbol. C. not depict this information. B 4.5.5.7.8.a.1 J37 LTA (Refer to figure 53, point D.) A balloon departs Mendota Airport (Q84) and drifts for a period of 1 hour and 30 minutes in a wind of 230° at 10 knots. What maximum elevation figure would assure obstruction clearance during the next 1 1/2 hours of flight? A. 1,600 feet MSL. B. 3,200 feet MSL. C. 9,400 feet MSL. A 4.5.5.7.9.a.1 J37 LTA (Refer to figure 52, point C.) If Sutter County Airport (O52) is departed at 0630 and at 0737 the town of Olivehurst is reached, the wind direction and speed would be approximately A. 098° at 6 knots. B. 098° at 17 knots. C. 278° at 8 knots. C 4.5.5.8.0.a.1 J37 LTA (Refer to figure 52, point D.) If you depart Lincoln Airport (O51) and track a true course of 075° with a groundspeed of 12 knots, your position after 1 hour 20 minutes of flight would be over the town of A. Foresthill. B. Clipper Gap. C. Weimar. B 4.5.5.8.1.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point D.) The highest obstruction with high intensity lighting within 10 NM of Lincoln Airport (O51) is how high above the ground? A. 1,254 feet. B. 662 feet. C. 299 feet. C 4.5.5.8.2.a.1 J37 LTA (Refer to figure 53, point D.) While drifting above the Mendota Airport (Q84) with a northwesterly wind of 8 knots, you A. are required to contact ATC on frequency 122.9 Mhz. B. should remain higher than 2,000 feet AGL until you are at least 8 NM southeast of that airport. C. will be over Firebaugh Airport (Q49) in approximately 1 hour. B 4.5.5.8.3.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point F.) Mosier Airport is A. an airport restricted to use by private and recreational pilots. B. a restricted military stage field within restricted airspace. C. a nonpublic use airport. C 4.5.5.8.4.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point B.) After departing from Rio Vista Airport (O88) with a southerly wind, you discover flight visibility to be approximately 2 1/2 miles, you must A. contact Travis AFB on remote frequency 122.8 to advise of your intentions. B. stay below 1,200 feet to remain in Class G. C. stay below 700 feet to remain in Class G. C 4.5.5.8.5.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 52, point D.) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln Airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation? A. 376 feet. B. 835 feet. C. 1,135 feet. B 4.5.5.8.6.a.1 J37 LTA (Refer to figure 54, point C.) GIVEN: Departure point..........................Meadowlark Airport Departure time...................................................0710 Wind180°...........................................................8 kts At 0917 the balloon should be A. east of VINCO intersection. B. over the town of Brentwood. C. 3 miles south of the town of Brentwood. B 4.5.5.8.7.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 54, point F.) The Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of A. both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL. B. 8,000 feet MSL. C. 2,100 feet AGL. A 4.5.5.8.8.a.1 J37 ALL (Refer to figure 53.) GIVEN: Altitude.................................................1,000 ft AGL Position...................................7 NM north of point E Time.......................................................3 p.m. local Flight visibility..................................................1 SM You are VFR approaching Madera Airport (point E) for a landing from the north. You A. are in violation of the FAR's; you need 3 miles of visibility under VFR. B. are required to descend to below 700 feet AGL before entering Class E airspace and may continue for landing. C. may descend to 800 feet AGL (Pattern Altitude) after entering Class E airspace and continue to the airport. B 4.5.5.8.9.a.1 J37 LTA (Refer to figure 52, point E.) A balloon is launched at University Airport (0O5) and drifts south-southwesterly toward the depicted obstruction. If the altimeter was set to 0 feet upon launch, what should it indicate if the balloon is to clear the obstruction by 500 feet above its top? A. 510 feet. B. 813 feet. C. 881 feet. B 4.5.5.9.0.a.1 J37 LTA A free balloon flight through a restricted area is A. never permitted. B. permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of high-speed military aircraft. C. permitted at certain times, but only with prior permission by the appropriate authority. C 4.5.5.9.1.a.1 J37 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 55 and 55a.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing GYMME intersection is A. 6,400 feet. B. 6,500 feet. C. 7,000 feet. C 4.5.5.9.2.a.1 J37 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 55 and 55a.) En route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection? A. One VOR receiver. B. One VOR receiver and DME. C. Two VOR receivers. A 4.5.5.9.3.a.1 J37 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 55 and 55a.) En route on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum en route altitude at TROTS intersection is A. 7,100 feet. B. 10,000 feet. C. 11,500 feet. C 4.5.5.9.4.a.1 J42 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 27 and 27a.) In the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure the FAF intercept altitude is A. 7,488 feet MSL. B. 7,500 feet MSL. C. 9,000 feet MSL. B 4.5.5.9.5.a.1 J42 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 27 and 27a.) The symbol [8100] in the MSA circle of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of A. Denver VORTAC. B. Gandi outer marker. C. Denver/Stapleton International Airport. A 4.5.5.9.6.a.1 J42 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 28 and 28a.) During the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is A. 2,365 feet MSL. B. 2,500 feet MSL. C. 3,000 feet MSL. X/B 4.5.5.9.7.a.1 J42 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 28 and 28a.) If the glide slope becomes inoperative during the ILS RWY 31R procedure at DSM, what MDA applies? A. 1,157 feet. B. 1,320 feet. C. 1,360 feet. B 4.5.5.9.8.a.1 J42 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 29 and 29a.) When approaching the ATL ILS RWY 8L, how far from the FAF is the missed approach point? A. 4.8 NM. B. 5.2 NM. C. 12.0 NM. B 4.5.5.9.9.a.1 J42 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 30 and 30a.) When approaching the VOR/DME-A, the symbol [2800] in the MSA circle represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of A. DEANI intersection. B. White Cloud VORTAC. C. Baldwin Municipal Airport. B 4.5.6.0.0.a.1 B07 AIR,RTC,LTA (Refer to figures 30 and 30a.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure? A. One VOR receiver. B. One VOR receiver and DME. C. Two VOR receivers and DME. B 5.5.6.0.1.a.1 B08 ALL During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft 1 sees only the green light of aircraft 2. If the aircraft are converging, which pilot has the right-of-way? The pilot of aircraft A. 2; aircraft 2 is to the right of aircraft 1. B. 1; aircraft 1 is to the right of aircraft 2. C. 2; aircraft 2 is to the left of aircraft 1. B 5.5.6.0.2.a.1 B08 AIR A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching on a collision course from the left. Which pilot should give way? A. Each pilot should alter course to the right. B. The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way; the other airplane is to the left. C. The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right. C 5.5.6.0.3.a.1 B08 LTA You are flying an airship under an IFR flight plan and experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under A. VFR and land as soon as practicable. B. VFR and proceed to your flight-plan destination. C. IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight-plan destination. A 5.5.6.0.4.a.1 H01 ALL Why should flight speeds above VNE be avoided? A. Excessive induced drag will result in structural failure. B. Design limit load factors may be exceeded, if gusts are encountered. C. Control effectiveness is so impaired that the aircraft becomes uncontrollable. X/B 5.5.6.0.5.a.1 H01 ALL Maximum structural cruising speed is the maximum speed at which an airplane can be operated during A. abrupt maneuvers. B. normal operations. C. flight in smooth air. B 5.5.6.0.6.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA Applying carburetor heat will A. not affect the mixture. B. lean the fuel/air mixture. C. enrich the fuel/air mixture. C 5.5.6.0.7.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA An abnormally high engine oil temperature indication may be caused by A. a defective bearing. B. the oil level being too low. C. operating with an excessively rich mixture. B 5.5.6.0.8.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA What will occur if no leaning is made with the mixture control as the flight altitude increases? A. The volume of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel decreases. B. The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel increases. C. The density of air entering the carburetor decreases and the amount of fuel remains constant. C 5.5.6.0.9.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA Unless adjusted, the fuel/air mixture becomes richer with an increase in altitude because the amount of fuel A. decreases while the volume of air decreases. B. remains constant while the volume of air decreases. C. remains constant while the density of air decreases. C 5.5.6.1.0.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA The basic purpose of adjusting the fuel/air mixture control at altitude is to A. decrease the fuel flow to compensate for decreased air density. B. decrease the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for increased air density. C. increase the amount of fuel in the mixture to compensate for the decrease in pressure and density of the air. A 5.5.6.1.1.a.1 H02 AIR,RTC,LTA At high altitudes, an excessively rich mixture will cause the A. engine to overheat. B. fouling of spark plugs. C. engine to operate smoother even though fuel consumption is increased. B 5.5.6.1.2.a.1 H03 GLI In the Northern Hemisphere, if a sailplane is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate A. correctly, only when on a north or south heading. B. a turn toward south while accelerating on a west heading. C. a turn toward north while decelerating on an east heading. A 5.5.6.1.3.a.1 H03 GLI When flying on a heading of west from one thermal to the next, the airspeed is increased to the speed-to-fly with the wings level. What will the conventional magnetic compass indicate while the airspeed is increasing? A. A turn toward the south. B. A turn toward the north. C. Straight flight on a heading of 270°. B 5.5.6.1.4.a.1 H04 AIR,GLI What effect does an uphill runway slope have on takeoff performance? A. Increases takeoff speed. B. Increases takeoff distance. C. Decreases takeoff distance. B 5.5.6.1.5.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 31.) Rwy 30 is being used for landing. Which surface wind would exceed the airplane's crosswind capability of 0.2 VSO, if VSO is 60 knots? A. 260° at 20 knots. B. 275° at 25 knots. C. 315° at 35 knots. A 5.5.6.1.6.a.1 H04 AIR,RTC,GLI (Refer to figure 31.) If the tower-reported surface wind is 010° at 18 knots, what is the crosswind component for a Rwy 08 landing? A. 7 knots. B. 15 knots. C. 17 knots. C 5.5.6.1.7.a.1 H04 AIR,RTC,GLI (Refer to figure 31.) The surface wind is 180° at 25 knots. What is the crosswind component for a Rwy 13 landing? A. 19 knots. B. 21 knots. C. 23 knots. A 5.5.6.1.8.a.1 H04 AIR,RTC,GLI (Refer to figure 31.) What is the headwind component for a Rwy 13 takeoff if the surface wind is 190° at 15 knots? A. 7 knots. B. 13 knots. C. 15 knots. A 5.5.6.1.9.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 32.) GIVEN: Temperature........................................75 °F Pressure altitude..............................6,000 ft Weight............................................2,900 lb Headwind...........................................20 kts To safely take off over a 50-foot obstacle in 1,000 feet, what weight reduction is necessary? A. 50 pounds. B. 100 pounds. C. 300 pounds. C 5.5.6.2.0.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 32.) GIVEN: Temperature.......................................50 °F Pressure altitude............................Sea level Weight............................................2,700 lb Wind...................................................Calm What is the total takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? A. 550 feet. B. 650 feet. C. 750 feet. B 5.5.6.2.1.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 32.) GIVEN: Temperature......................................100 °F Pressure altitude..............................4,000 ft Weight............................................3,200 lb Wind...................................................Calm What is the ground roll required for takeoff over a 50-foot obstacle? A. 1,180 feet. B. 1,350 feet. C. 1,850 feet. B 5.5.6.2.2.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 32.) GIVEN: Temperature.......................................30 °F Pressure altitude.............................6,000 ft Weight...........................................3,300 lb Headwind..........................................20 kts What is the total takeoff distance over a 50-foot obstacle? A. 1,100 feet. B. 1,300 feet. C. 1,500 feet. C 5.5.6.2.3.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 33.) GIVEN: Weight...........................................4,000 lb Pressure altitude.............................5,000 ft Temperature......................................30 °C What is the maximum rate of climb under the given conditions? A. 655 ft/min. B. 702 ft/min. C. 774 ft/min. B 5.5.6.2.4.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 33.) GIVEN: Weight..........................................3,700 lb Pressure altitude..........................22,000 ft Temperature....................................-10 °C What is the maximum rate of climb under the given conditions? A. 305 ft/min. B. 320 ft/min. C. 384 ft/min. C 5.5.6.2.5.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 34.) GIVEN: Pressure altitude............................6,000 ft Temperature.....................................+3 °C Power........................2,200 RPM - 22" MP Usable fuel available.........................465 lb What is the maximum available flight time under the conditions stated? A. 6 hours 27 minutes. B. 6 hours 39 minutes. C. 6 hours 56 minutes. B 5.5.6.2.6.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 34.) GIVEN: Pressure altitude..............................6,000 ft Temperature......................................-17 °C Power..........................2,300 RPM - 23" MP Usable fuel available..........................370 lb What is the maximum available flight time under the conditions stated? A. 4 hours 20 minutes. B. 4 hours 30 minutes. C. 4 hours 50 minutes. B 5.5.6.2.7.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 34.) GIVEN: Pressure altitude.............................6,000 ft Temperature....................................+13 °C Power.........................2,500 RPM - 23" MP Usable fuel available.........................460 lb What is the maximum available flight time under the conditions stated? A. 4 hours 58 minutes. B. 5 hours 7 minutes. C. 5 hours 12 minutes. C 5.5.6.2.8.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 35.) GIVEN: Temperature.......................................70 °F Pressure altitude............................Sea level Weight...........................................3,400 lb Headwind..........................................16 kts Determine the approximate ground roll. A. 689 feet. B. 716 feet. C. 1,275 feet. A 5.5.6.2.9.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 35.) GIVEN: Temperature.......................................85 °F Pressure altitude.............................6,000 ft Weight...........................................2,800 lb Headwind..........................................14 kts Determine the approximate ground roll. A. 742 feet. B. 1,280 feet. C. 1,480 feet. A 5.5.6.3.0.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 35.) GIVEN: Temperature......................................50 °F Pressure altitude...........................Sea level Weight..........................................3,000 lb Headwind.........................................10 kts Determine the approximate ground roll. A. 425 feet. B. 636 feet. C. 836 feet. B 5.5.6.3.1.a.1 H04 AIR (Refer to figure 35.) GIVEN: Temperature......................................80 °F Pressure altitude............................4,000 ft Weight..........................................2,800 lb Headwind.........................................24 kts What is the total landing distance over a 50-foot obstacle? A. 1,125 feet. B. 1,250 feet. C. 1,325 feet. A 5.5.6.3.2.a.1 H11 AIR,RTC When computing weight and balance, the empty weight includes the weight of the airframe, engine(s), and all items of operating equipment permanently installed. Empty weight also includes A. the unusable fuel, hydraulic fluid, and undrainable oil or, in some aircraft, all of the oil. B. all usable fuel, maximum oil, hydraulic fluid, but does not include the weight of pilot, passengers, or baggage. C. all usable fuel and oil, but does not include any radio equipment or instruments that were installed by someone other than the manufacturer. A 5.5.6.3.3.a.1 H11 AIR If all index units are positive when computing weight and balance, the location of the datum would be at the A. centerline of the main wheels. B. nose, or out in front of the airplane. C. centerline of the nose or tailwheel, depending on the type of airplane. B 5.5.6.3.4.a.1 H12 ALL The CG of an aircraft can be determined by which of the following methods? A. Dividing total arms by total moments. B. Multiplying total arms by total weight. C. Dividing total moments by total weight. C 5.5.6.3.5.a.1 H12 ALL The CG of an aircraft may be determined by A. dividing total arms by total moments. B. dividing total moments by total weight. C. multiplying total weight by total moments. B 5.5.6.3.6.a.1 H12 ALL GIVEN: Weight A - 155 pounds at 45 inches aft of datum Weight B - 165 pounds at 145 inches aft of datum Weight C - 95 pounds at 185 inches aft of datum Based on this information, where would the CG be located aft of datum? A. 86.0 inches. B. 116.8 inches. C. 125.0 inches. B 5.5.6.3.7.a.1 H12 ALL GIVEN: Weight A - 140 pounds at 17 inches aft of datum Weight B - 120 pounds at 110 inches aft of datum Weight C - 85 pounds at 210 inches aft of datum Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum? A. 89.11 inches. B. 96.89 inches. C. 106.92 inches. B 5.5.6.3.8.a.1 H12 ALL GIVEN: Weight A - 135 pounds at 15 inches aft of datum Weight B - 205 pounds at 117 inches aft of datum Weight C - 85 pounds at 195 inches aft of datum Based on this information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum? A. 100.2 inches. B. 109.0 inches. C. 121.7 inches. A 5.5.6.3.9.a.1 H12 ALL GIVEN: Weight A - 175 pounds at 135 inches aft of datum Weight B - 135 pounds at 115 inches aft of datum Weight C - 75 pounds at 85 inches aft of datum The CG for the combined weights would be located how far aft of datum? A. 91.76 inches. B. 111.67 inches. C. 118.24 inches. C 5.5.6.4.0.a.1 H12 GLI (Refer to figure 36.) GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 610 96.47 ? Pilot (fwd seat) 150 ? ? Passenger 180 ? ? (aft seat) Radio and 10 23.20 ? batteries TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A. 33.20. B. 59.55. C. 83.26. C 5.5.6.4.1.a.1 H12 GLI (Refer to figure 36.) GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 612 96.47 ? Pilot (fwd 170 ? ? seat) Passenger 160 ? ? (aft seat) Radio and 10 23.20 ? batteries Ballast 20 14.75 ? TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A. 81.23. B. 82.63. C. 83.26. A 5.5.6.4.2.a.1 H12 GLI (Refer to figure 36.) GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 605 96.47 ? Pilot (fwd 120 ? ? seat) Passenger 160 ? ? (aft seat) Radio and 20 23.20 ? batteries Ballast 40 14.75 ? TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A. 79.77. B. 80.32. C. 81.09. C 5.5.6.4.3.a.1 H12 GLI GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT Empty weight 957 29.07 ? Pilot (fwd 140 -45.30 ? seat) Passenger 170 +1.60 ? (aft seat) Ballast 15 -45.30 ? TOTALS ? ? ? The CG is located at station A. -6.43. B. +16.43. C. +27.38. B 5.5.6.4.4.a.1 H12 RTC (Refer to figure 37.) GIVEN: WEIGHT MOMENT Gyroplane basic weight 1,315 150.1 (oil included) Pilot weight 140 ? Passenger weight 150 ? 27 gal fuel 162 ? The CG is located A. outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross weight is exceeded. B. outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross weight and the gross-weight moment are exceeded. C. within the CG envelope; neither maximum gross weight nor gross-weight moment is exceeded. C 5.5.6.4.5.a.1 H12 RTC (Refer to figure 37.) GIVEN: WEIGHT MOMENT Gyroplane basic weight 1,315 154.0 (oil included) Pilot weight 145 ? Passenger weight 153 ? 27 gal fuel 162 ? The CG is located A. outside the CG envelope; the maximum gross weight is exceeded. B. outside the CG envelope; but the maximum gross weight is not exceeded. C. within the CG envelope; neither maximum gross weight nor gross-weight moment is exceeded. B 5.5.6.4.6.a.1 H14 AIR GIVEN: Total weight.................................4,137 lb CG locationstation..............................67.8 Fuel consumption.......................13.7 GPH Fuel CGstation....................................68.0 After 1 hour 30 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station A. 67.79. B. 68.79. C. 70.78. A 5.5.6.4.7.a.1 H14 AIR An aircraft is loaded with a ramp weight of 3,650 pounds and having a CG of 94.0, approximately how much baggage would have to be moved from the rear baggage area at station 180 to the forward baggage area at station 40 in order to move the CG to 92.0? A. 52.14 pounds. B. 62.24 pounds. C. 78.14 pounds. A 5.5.6.4.8.a.1 H14 AIR An airplane is loaded to a gross weight of 4,800 pounds, with three pieces of luggage in the rear baggage compartment. The CG is located 98 inches aft of datum, which is 1 inch aft of limits. If luggage which weighs 90 pounds is moved from the rear baggage compartment (145 inches aft of datum) to the front compartment (45 inches aft of datum), what is the new CG? A. 96.13 inches aft of datum. B. 95.50 inches aft of datum. C. 99.87 inches aft of datum. A 5.5.6.4.9.a.1 H14 AIR GIVEN: Total weight.................................3,037 lb CG locationstation..............................68.8 Fuel consumption.......................12.7 GPH Fuel CGstation....................................68.0 After 1 hour 45 minutes of flight time, the CG would be located at station A. 68.77. B. 68.83. C. 69.77. B 5.5.6.5.0.a.1 H15 AIR (Refer to figure 38.) GIVEN: Empty weight (oil is included)..........1,271 lb Empty weight moment (in-lb/1,000)...102.04 Pilot and copilot..................................400 lb Rear seat passenger.............................140 lb Cargo..................................................100 lb Fuel.....................................................37 gal Is the airplane loaded within limits? A. Yes, the weight and CG is within limits. B. No, the weight exceeds the maximum allowable. C. No, the weight is acceptable, but the CG is aft of the aft limit. A 5.5.6.5.1.a.1 H15 AIR (Refer to figure 38.) GIVEN: Empty weight (oil is included)..........1,271 lb Empty weight moment (in-lb/1,000)...102.04 Pilot and copilot..................................260 lb Rear seat passenger.............................120 lb Cargo....................................................60 lb Fuel.....................................................37 gal Under these conditions, the CG is determined to be located A. within the CG envelope. B. on the forward limit of the CG envelope. C. within the shaded area of the CG envelope. A 5.5.6.5.2.a.1 H15 AIR (Refer to figure 38.) GIVEN: Empty weight (oil is included).........1,271 lb Empty weight moment (in-lb/1,000)..102.04 Pilot and copilot.................................360 lb Cargo.................................................340 lb Fuel....................................................37 gal Will the CG remain within limits after 30 gallons of fuel has been used in flight? A. Yes, the CG will remain within limits. B. No, the CG will be located aft of the aft CG limit. C. Yes, but the CG will be located in the shaded area of the CG envelope. A 5.5.6.5.3.a.1 H50 AIR,RTC Frequent inspections should be made of aircraft exhaust manifold-type heating systems to minimize the possibility of A. exhaust gases leaking into the cockpit. B. a power loss due to back pressure in the exhaust system. C. a cold-running engine due to the heat withdrawn by the heater. A 5.5.6.5.4.a.1 H51 AIR To establish a climb after takeoff in an aircraft equipped with a constant-speed propeller, the output of the engine is reduced to climb power by decreasing manifold pressure and A. increasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. B. decreasing RPM by decreasing propeller blade angle. C. decreasing RPM by increasing propeller blade angle. C 5.5.6.5.5.a.1 H54 AIR When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used? A. Neutral. B. Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing. C. Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing. C 5.5.6.5.6.a.1 H54 AIR While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned A. neutral at all times. B. toward the direction from which the wind is blowing. C. opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing. C 5.5.6.5.7.a.1 H56 AIR,RTC (Refer to figure 51.) The pilot generally calls ground control after landing when the aircraft is completely clear of the runway. This is when the aircraft A. passes the red symbol shown at the top of the figure. B. is on the dashed-line side of the middle symbol. C. is on the solid-line side of the middle symbol. C 5.5.6.5.8.a.1 H56 AIR,RTC (Refer to figure 51.) The red symbol at the top would most likely be found A. upon exiting all runways prior to calling ground control. B. where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway. C. near the approach end of ILS runways. B 5.5.6.5.9.a.1 H56 AIR,RTC (Refer to figure 51.) While clearing an active runway you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which symbol? A. Top red. B. Middle yellow. C. Bottom yellow. C 5.5.6.6.0.a.1 H56 AIR,RTC (Refer to figure 51.) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft? A. Top red. B. Middle yellow. C. Bottom yellow. A 5.5.6.6.1.a.1 H57 AIR With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use A. aileron pressure into the wind and initiate the lift-off at a normal airspeed in both tailwheel-and nosewheel-type airplanes. B. right rudder pressure, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both tricycle- and conventional-gear airplanes. C. rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes. C 5.5.6.6.2.a.1 H58 AIR When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason? A. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control. B. Decrease the airspeed slightly below normal approach speed to avoid overstressing the airplane. C. Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to penetrate the turbulence as quickly as possible. A 5.5.6.6.3.a.1 H58 AIR A pilot's most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborne on takeoff is A. maintaining a safe airspeed. B. landing directly into the wind. C. turning back to the takeoff field. A 5.5.6.6.4.a.1 H58 AIR Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions? A. A power-on approach and power-on landing. B. A power-off approach and power-on landing. C. A power-on approach and power-off landing. A 5.5.6.6.5.a.1 H58 AIR A proper crosswind landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the A. direction of motion of the airplane and its lateral axis be perpendicular to the runway. B. direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway. C. downwind wing be lowered sufficiently to eliminate the tendency for the airplane to drift. B 5.5.6.6.6.a.1 H63 AIR What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude? The other aircraft is A. headed away from you. B. crossing to your left. C. approaching you head-on. A 5.5.6.6.7.a.1 H66 AIR To develop maximum power and thrust, a constant-speed propeller should be set to a blade angle that will produce a A. large angle of attack and low RPM. B. small angle of attack and high RPM. C. large angle of attack and high RPM. B 5.5.6.6.8.a.1 H66 AIR For takeoff, the blade angle of a controllable-pitch propeller should be set at a A. small angle of attack and high RPM. B. large angle of attack and low RPM. C. large angle of attack and high RPM. A 5.5.6.6.9.a.1 H66 AIR A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is appropriate upon encountering the first ripple? A. Maintain altitude and airspeed. B. Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air. C. Enter a shallow climb or descent at maneuvering speed. B 5.5.6.7.0.a.1 H66 AIR If severe turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to A. minimum control speed. B. design-maneuvering speed. C. maximum structural cruising speed. B 5.5.6.7.1.a.1 H71 RTC During the full flare portion of a power-off landing, the rotor RPM tends to A. remain constant. B. increase initially. C. decrease initially. B 5.5.6.7.2.a.1 H71 RTC Which would produce the slowest rotor RPM? A. A vertical descent with power. B. A vertical descent without power. C. Pushing over after a steep climb. C 5.5.6.7.3.a.1 H73 RTC If the RPM is low and the manifold pressure is high, what initial corrective action should be taken? A. Increase the throttle. B. Lower the collective pitch. C. Raise the collective pitch. B 5.5.6.7.4.a.1 H73 RTC During climbing flight, the manifold pressure is low and the RPM is high. What initial corrective action should be taken? A. Increase the throttle. B. Decrease the throttle. C. Raise the collective pitch. C 5.5.6.7.5.a.1 H73 RTC During level flight, if the manifold pressure is high and the RPM is low, what initial corrective action should be made? A. Decrease the throttle. B. Increase the throttle. C. Lower the collective pitch. C 5.5.6.7.6.a.1 H75 RTC When operating a helicopter in conditions favorable for carburetor icing, the carburetor heat should be A. adjusted to keep the carburetor air temperature gauge indicating in the green arc at all times. B. OFF for takeoffs, adjusted to keep the carburetor air temperature gauge indicating in the green arc at all other times. C. OFF during takeoffs, approaches, and landings; adjusted to keep the carburetor air temperature gauge indicating in the green arc at all other times. B 5.5.6.7.7.a.1 H76 RTC (Refer to figure 39.) GIVEN: MOMENT WEIGHT ARM (IN) (IN.-LBS) Empty weight 1,700 +6.0 +10,200 Pilot weight 200 -31.0 ? Oil (8 qt, ? +1.0 ? all usable) Fuel (50 gal, ? +2.0 ? all usable) Baggage 30 -31.0 ? TOTALS ? ? ? If the datum line is located at station 0, the CG is located approximately A. 1.64 inches aft of datum. B. 1.64 inches forward of datum. C. 1.66 inches forward of datum. A 5.5.6.7.8.a.1 H76 RTC (Refer to figure 40.) GIVEN: Basic weight (oil is included)..............830 lb Basic weight moment (1,000/in.-lb).....104.8 Pilot weight........................................175 lb Passenger weight ................................160 lb Fuel..................................................19.2 gal The CG is located A. well aft of the aft CG limit. B. within the CG envelope. C. forward of the forward CG limit. A 5.5.6.7.9.a.1 H76 RTC GIVEN: LNG. LNG. LAT. LAT. WT ARM MOM. ARM. MOM. Empty weight 1700 116.1 ? +0.2 -- Fuel (75 gal ? 110.0 ? -- -- at 6.8 ppg) Oil 12 179.0 ? -- -- Pilot (right seat) 175 65.0 ? +12.5 ? Passenger 195 104.0 ? -13.3 ? (left seat) TOTALS ? ? ? ? ? Determine the longitudinal and lateral CG respectively. A. 109.35" and -.04". B. 110.43" and +.02". C. 110.83" and -.02". C 5.5.6.8.0.a.1 H76 RTC A helicopter is loaded in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft allowable CG limit. Which is true about this situation? A. In case of an autorotation, sufficient aft cyclic control may not be available to flare properly. B. This condition would become more hazardous as fuel is consumed, if the main fuel tank is located aft of the rotor mast. C. If the helicopter should pitchup due to gusty winds during high-speed flight, there may not be sufficient forward cyclic control available to lower the nose. C 5.5.6.8.1.a.1 H76 RTC A helicopter is loaded in such a manner that the CG is located forward of the allowable CG limit. Which is true about this situation? A. This condition would become less hazardous as fuel is consumed if the fuel tank is located aft of the rotor mast. B. In case of engine failure and the resulting autorotation, sufficient cyclic control may not be available to flare properly to land. C. Should the aircraft pitchup during cruise flight due to gusty winds, there may not be enough forward cyclic control available to lower the nose. B 5.5.6.8.2.a.1 H76 ALL With respect to using the weight information given in a typical aircraft owner's manual for computing gross weight, it is important to know that if items have been installed in the aircraft in addition to the original equipment, the A. allowable useful load is decreased. B. allowable useful load remains unchanged. C. maximum allowable gross weight is increased. A 5.5.6.8.3.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 41.) GIVEN: Helicopter gross weight...................1,225 lb Ambient temperature...........................77 °F Determine the in-ground-effect hover ceiling. A. 6,750 feet. B. 7,250 feet. C. 8,000 feet. A 5.5.6.8.4.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 41.) GIVEN: Helicopter gross weight...................1,175 lb Ambient temperature..........................95 °F Determine the out-of-ground effect hover ceiling. A. 5,000 feet. B. 5,250 feet. C. 6,250 feet. B 5.5.6.8.5.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 41.) GIVEN: Helicopter gross weight.................1,275 lb Ambient temperature...........................9 °F Determine the in ground effect hover ceiling. A. 6,600 feet. B. 7,900 feet. C. 8,750 feet. B 5.5.6.8.6.a.1 H77 RTC As altitude increases, the VNE of a helicopter will A. increase. B. decrease. C. remain the same. B 5.5.6.8.7.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 42.) Departure is planned from a heliport that has a reported pressure altitude of 4,100 feet. What rate of climb could be expected in this helicopter if the ambient temperature is 90 °F? A. 210 ft/min. B. 250 ft/min. C. 390 ft/min. B 5.5.6.8.8.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 42.) Departure is planned for a flight from a heliport with a pressure altitude of 3,800 feet. What rate of climb could be expected in this helicopter during departure if the ambient temperature is 70 °F? A. 330 ft/min. B. 360 ft/min. C. 400 ft/min. A 5.5.6.8.9.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 43.) GIVEN: Ambient temperature........................60 °F Pressure altitude...........................2,000 ft What is the rate of climb? A. 480 ft/min. B. 515 ft/min. C. 540 ft/min. B 5.5.6.9.0.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 43.) GIVEN: Ambient temperature........................80 °F Pressure altitude...........................2,500 ft What is the rate of climb? A. 350 ft/min. B. 395 ft/min. C. 420 ft/min. B 5.5.6.9.1.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 44.) GIVEN: Ambient temperature.........................40 °F Pressure altitude............................1,000 ft What is the rate of climb? A. 810 ft/min. B. 830 ft/min. C. 860 ft/min. C 5.5.6.9.2.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figure 44.) GIVEN: Ambient temperature..........................60 °F Pressure altitude.............................2,000 ft What is the rate of climb? A. 705 ft/min. B. 630 ft/min. C. 755 ft/min. A 5.5.6.9.3.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figures 45 and 46.) GIVEN: Pressure altitude.............................4,000 ft Ambient temperature.........................80 °F To clear a 50-foot obstacle, a jump takeoff would require A. more distance than a running takeoff. B. less distance than a running takeoff. C. the same distance as a running takeoff. A 5.5.6.9.4.a.1 H77 RTC (Refer to figures 45 and 46.) GIVEN: Pressure altitude.............................4,000 ft Ambient temperature.........................80 °F The takeoff distance to clear a 50-foot obstacle is A. 1,225 feet for a jump takeoff. B. 1,440 feet for a running takeoff. C. less for a running takeoff than for a jump takeoff. C 5.5.6.9.5.a.1 H78 RTC The antitorque system fails during cruising flight and a powered approach landing is commenced. If the helicopter yaws to the right just prior to touchdown, what could the pilot do to help swing the nose to the left? A. Increase the throttle. B. Decrease the throttle. C. Increase collective pitch. B 5.5.6.9.6.a.1 H78 RTC If antitorque failure occurred during cruising flight, what could be done to help straighten out a left yaw prior to touchdown? A. A normal running landing should be made. B. Make a running landing using partial power and left cyclic. C. Apply available throttle to help swing the nose to the right just prior to touchdown. C 5.5.6.9.7.a.1 H78 RTC Should a helicopter pilot ever be concerned about ground resonance during takeoff? A. No; ground resonance occurs only during an autorotative touchdown. B. Yes; although it is more likely to occur on landing, it can occur during takeoff. C. Yes, but only during slope takeoffs. B 5.5.6.9.8.a.1 H78 RTC An excessively steep approach angle and abnormally slow closure rate should be avoided during an approach to a hover, primarily because A. the airspeed indicator would be unreliable. B. a go-around would be very difficult to accomplish. C. settling with power could develop, particularly during the termination. C 5.5.6.9.9.a.1 H78 RTC During a near-vertical power approach into a confined area with the airspeed near zero, what hazardous condition may develop? A. Ground resonance. B. Settling with power. C. Blade stall vibration. B 5.5.7.0.0.a.1 H78 RTC Which procedure will result in recovery from settling with power? A. Increase collective pitch and power. B. Maintain constant collective pitch and increase throttle. C. Increase forward speed and partially lower collective pitch. C 5.5.7.0.1.a.1 H78 RTC The addition of power in a settling with power situation produces an A. increase in airspeed. B. even greater rate of descent. C. increase in cyclic control effectiveness. B 5.5.7.0.2.a.1 H78 RTC Under which situation is accidental settling with power likely to occur? A. A steep approach in which the airspeed is permitted to drop to nearly zero. B. A shallow approach in which the airspeed is permitted to drop below 10 MPH. C. Hovering in ground effect during calm wind, high-density altitude conditions. A 5.5.7.0.3.a.1 H78 RTC Which is true with respect to recovering from an accidental settling with power situation? A. Antitorque pedals should not be utilized during the recovery. B. Recovery can be accomplished by increasing rotor RPM, reducing forward airspeed, and minimizing maneuvering. C. Since the inboard portions of the main rotor blades are stalled, cyclic control effectiveness will be reduced during the initial portion of the recovery. C 5.5.7.0.4.a.1 H78 RTC When operating at high forward airspeed, retreating blade stall is more likely to occur under conditions of A. low gross weight, high density altitude, and smooth air. B. high gross weight, low density altitude, and smooth air. C. high gross weight, high density altitude, and turbulent air. C 5.5.7.0.5.a.1 H78 RTC What are the major indications of an incipient retreating blade stall situation, in order of occurrence? A. Low-frequency vibration, pitchup of the nose, and a tendency for the helicopter to roll. B. Slow pitchup of the nose, high-frequency vibration, and a tendency for the helicopter to roll. C. Slow pitchup of the nose, tendency for the helicopter to roll, followed by a medium-frequency vibration. A 5.5.7.0.6.a.1 H78 RTC How should a pilot react at the onset of retreating blade stall? A. Reduce collective pitch, rotor RPM, and forward airspeed. B. Reduce collective pitch, increase rotor RPM, and reduce forward airspeed. C. Increase collective pitch, reduce rotor RPM, and reduce forward airspeed. B 5.5.7.0.7.a.1 H79 RTC The most power will be required to hover over which surface? A. High grass. B. Concrete ramp. C. Rough/uneven ground. A 5.5.7.0.8.a.1 H79 RTC Which flight technique is recommended for use during hot weather? A. During takeoff, accelerate quickly into forward flight. B. During takeoff, accelerate slowly into forward flight. C. Use minimum allowable RPM and maximum allowable manifold pressure during all phases of flight. B 5.5.7.0.9.a.1 H80 RTC To taxi on the surface in a safe and efficient manner, helicopter pilots should use the A. cyclic pitch to control starting, taxi speed, and stopping. B. collective pitch to control starting, taxi speed, and stopping. C. antitorque pedals to correct for drift during crosswind conditions. B 5.5.7.1.0.a.1 H80 RTC During surface taxiing, the cyclic pitch stick is used to control A. heading. B. ground track. C. forward movement. B 5.5.7.1.1.a.1 H80 RTC To taxi on the surface in a safe and efficient manner, one should use the cyclic pitch to A. start and stop aircraft movement. B. maintain heading during crosswind conditions. C. correct for drift during crosswind conditions. C 5.5.7.1.2.a.1 H80 RTC A pilot is hovering during calm wind conditions. The greatest amount of engine power will be required when A. ground effect exists. B. making a left-pedal turn. C. making a right-pedal turn. B 5.5.7.1.3.a.1 H80 RTC Which statement is true about an autorotative descent? A. Generally, only the cyclic control is used to make turns. B. The pilot should use the collective pitch control to control the rate of descent. C. The rotor RPM will tend to decrease if a tight turn is made with a heavily loaded helicopter. A 5.5.7.1.4.a.1 H80 RTC Using right pedal to assist a right turn during an autorotative descent will probably result in what actions? A. A decrease in rotor RPM, pitch up of the nose, decrease in sink rate, and increase in indicated airspeed. B. An increase in rotor RPM, pitch up of the nose, decrease in sink rate, and increase in indicated airspeed. C. An increase in rotor RPM, pitch down of the nose, increase in sink rate, and decrease in indicated airspeed. C 5.5.7.1.5.a.1 H80 RTC Using left pedal to assist a left turn during an autorotative descent will probably cause the rotor RPM to A. increase and the airspeed to decrease. B. decrease and the aircraft nose to pitch down. C. increase and the aircraft nose to pitch down. C 5.5.7.1.6.a.1 H80 RTC When planning slope operations, only slopes of 5° gradient or less should be considered, primarily because A. ground effect is lost on slopes of steeper gradient. B. downwash turbulence is more severe on slopes of steeper gradient. C. most helicopters are not designed for operations on slopes of steeper gradient. C 5.5.7.1.7.a.1 H80 RTC When making a slope landing, the cyclic pitch control should be used to A. lower the downslope skid to the ground. B. hold the upslope skid against the slope. C. place the rotor disc parallel to the slope. B 5.5.7.1.8.a.1 H80 RTC Takeoff from a slope is normally accomplished by A. making a downslope running takeoff if the surface is smooth. B. simultaneously applying collective pitch and downslope cyclic control. C. bringing the helicopter to a level attitude before completely leaving the ground. C 5.5.7.1.9.a.1 H80 RTC What is the procedure for a slope landing? A. Use maximum RPM and maximum manifold pressure. B. If the slope is 10° or less, the landing should be made perpendicular to the slope. C. When parallel to the slope, slowly lower the upslope skid to the ground prior to lowering the downslope skid. C 5.5.7.2.0.a.1 H80 RTC You are hovering during calm wind conditions and decide to make a right-pedal turn. In most helicopters equipped with reciprocating engines, the engine RPM will tend to A. increase. B. decrease. C. remain unaffected. A 5.5.7.2.1.a.1 H80 RTC During calm wind conditions, in most helicopters, which of these flight operations would require the most power? A. A left-pedal turn. B. A right-pedal turn. C. Hovering in ground effect. A 5.5.7.2.2.a.1 H80 RTC If complete power failure should occur while cruising at altitude, the pilot should A. partially lower the collective pitch, close the throttle, then completely lower the collective pitch. B. lower the collective pitch as necessary to maintain proper rotor RPM, and apply right pedal to correct for yaw. C. close the throttle, lower the collective pitch to the full-down position, apply left pedal to correct for yaw, and establish a normal power-off glide. B 5.5.7.2.3.a.1 H80 RTC When making an autorotation to touchdown, what action is most appropriate? A. A slightly nose-high attitude at touchdown is the proper procedure. B. The skids should be in a longitudinally level attitude at touchdown. C. Aft cyclic application after touchdown is desirable to help decrease ground run. B 5.5.7.2.4.a.1 H80 RTC During the entry into a quick stop, how should the collective pitch control be used? It should be A. lowered as necessary to prevent ballooning. B. raised as necessary to prevent a rotor overspeed. C. raised as necessary to prevent a loss of altitude. A 5.5.7.2.5.a.1 H80 RTC During a normal approach to a hover, the collective pitch control is used primarily to A. maintain RPM. B. control the rate of closure. C. control the angle of descent. C 5.5.7.2.6.a.1 H80 RTC During a normal approach to a hover, the cyclic pitch is used primarily to A. maintain heading. B. control rate of closure. C. control angle of descent. B 5.5.7.2.7.a.1 H80 RTC Normal RPM should be maintained during a running landing primarily to ensure A. adequate directional control until the helicopter stops. B. that sufficient lift is available should an emergency develop. C. longitudinal and lateral control, especially if the helicopter is heavily loaded or high density altitude conditions exist. A 5.5.7.2.8.a.1 H80 RTC Which is true concerning a running takeoff? A. If a helicopter cannot be lifted vertically, a running takeoff should be made. B. One advantage of a running takeoff is that the additional airspeed can be converted quickly to altitude. C. A running takeoff may be possible when gross weight or density altitude prevents a sustained hover at normal hovering altitude. C 5.5.7.2.9.a.1 H81 RTC When conducting a confined area-type operation, the primary purpose of the high reconnaissance is to determine the A. type of approach to be made. B. suitability of the area for landing. C. height of the obstructions surrounding the area. B 5.5.7.3.0.a.1 H81 RTC During a pinnacle approach to a rooftop heliport under conditions of high wind and turbulence, the pilot should make a A. shallow approach, maintaining a constant line of descent with cyclic applications. B. normal approach, maintaining a slower-than-normal rate of descent with cyclic applications. C. steeper-than-normal approach, maintaining the desired angle of descent with collective applications. C 5.5.7.3.1.a.1 H81 RTC What type approach should be made to a rooftop heliport under conditions of relatively high wind and turbulence? A. A normal approach. B. A steeper-than-normal approach. C. A shallower-than-normal approach. B 5.5.7.3.2.a.1 H81 RTC If turbulence and downdrafts are expected during a pinnacle approach to a rooftop heliport, plan to make a A. steeper-than-normal approach. B. normal approach, maintaining a lower-than-normal airspeed. C. shallow approach, maintaining a higher-than-normal airspeed. A 5.5.7.3.3.a.1 H91 RTC If ground resonance is experienced during rotor spin-up, what action should you take? A. Taxi to a smooth area. B. Make a normal takeoff immediately. C. Close the throttle and slowly raise the spin-up lever. C 5.5.7.3.4.a.1 H91 RTC The principal factor limiting the never-exceed speed (VNE) of a gyroplane is A. turbulence and altitude. B. blade-tip speed, which must remain below the speed of sound. C. lack of sufficient cyclic stick control to compensate for dissymmetry of lift or retreating blade stall, depending on which occurs first. C 5.5.7.3.5.a.1 H91 RTC Why should gyroplane operations within the cross-hatched portion of a Height vs. Velocity chart be avoided? A. The rotor RPM may build excessively high if it is necessary to flare at such low altitudes. B. Sufficient airspeed may not be available to ensure a safe landing in case of an engine failure. C. Turbulence near the surface can dephase the blade dampers causing geometric unbalanced conditions on the rotor system. B 5.5.7.3.6.a.1 H91 RTC The principal reason the shaded area of a Height vs. Velocity chart should be avoided is A. rotor RPM may decay before ground contact is made if an engine failure should occur. B. rotor RPM may build excessively high if it is necessary to flare at such low altitudes. C. insufficient airspeed would be available to ensure a safe landing in case of an engine failure. C 5.5.7.3.7.a.1 H92 RTC During the transition from pre-rotation to flight, all rotor blades change pitch A. simultaneously to the same angle of incidence. B. simultaneously but to different angles of incidence. C. to the same degree at the same point in the cycle of rotation. B 5.5.7.3.8.a.1 H94 RTC Select the true statement concerning gyroplane taxi procedures. A. Avoid abrupt control movements when blades are turning. B. The cyclic stick should be held in the neutral position at all times. C. The cyclic stick should be held slightly aft of neutral at all times. A 5.5.7.3.9.a.1 I29 AIR Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing usually will cause A. the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is higher than normal. B. the airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal. C. drag factors so large that sufficient speed cannot be obtained for takeoff. B 5.5.7.4.0.a.1 I04 ALL To determine pressure altitude prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to A. the current altimeter setting. B. 29.92" Hg and the altimeter indication noted. C. the field elevation and the pressure reading in the altimeter setting window noted. B 5.5.7.4.1.a.1 I30 AIR Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence? A. Change power settings, as necessary, to maintain constant airspeed. B. Control airspeed with power, maintain wings level, and accept variations of altitude. C. Set power and trim to obtain an airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level, and accept variations of airspeed and altitude. C 5.5.7.4.2.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 47.) At the 0900 hours sounding and the line plotted from the surface to 10,000 feet, what temperature must exist at the surface for instability to take place between these altitudes? Any temperature A. less than 68 °F. B. more than 68 °F. C. less than 43 °F. B 5.5.7.4.3.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 47.) At the sounding taken at 0900 hours from 2,500 feet to 15,000 feet, what minimum surface temperature is required for instability to occur and for good thermals to develop from the surface to 15,000 feet MSL? A. 58 °F. B. 68 °F. C. 80 °F. C 5.5.7.4.4.a.1 I35 GLI (Refer to figure 47.) At the soundings taken at 1400 hours, is the atmosphere stable or unstable and at what altitudes? A. Stable from 6,000 to 10,000 feet. B. Stable from 10,000 to 13,000 feet. C. Unstable from 10,000 to 13,000 feet. B 5.5.7.4.5.a.1 I35 GLI Which thermal index would predict the best probability of good soaring conditions? A. +5. B. -5. C. -10. C 5.5.7.4.6.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding the effect of fronts on soaring conditions? A. Good soaring conditions usually exist after passage of a warm front. B. Excellent soaring conditions usually exist in the cold air ahead of a warm front. C. Frequently the air behind a cold front provides excellent soaring for several days. C 5.5.7.4.7.a.1 I35 GLI Which is true regarding ridge soaring with the wind direction perpendicular to the ridge? A. When very close to the surface of the ridge, the glider's speed should be reduced to the minimum sink speed. B. When the wind and lift are very strong on the windward side of the ridge, a weak sink condition will exist on the leeward side. C. If the glider drifts downwind from the ridge and sinks slightly lower than the crest of the ridge, the glider should be turned away from the ridge and a high speed attained. C 5.5.7.4.8.a.1 J13 AIR,RTC Pilots are encouraged to turn on the aircraft rotating beacon A. just prior to taxi. B. anytime they are in the cockpit. C. anytime an engine is in operation. C 5.5.7.4.9.a.1 J14 ALL When in the vicinity of a VOR which is being used for navigation on VFR flights, it is important to A. make 90° left and right turns to scan for other traffic. B. exercise sustained vigilance to avoid aircraft that may be converging on the VOR from other directions. C. pass the VOR on the right side of the radial to allow room for aircraft flying in the opposite direction on the same radial. B 5.5.7.5.0.a.1 J27 ALL Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence. A. Vortex generation begins with the initiation of the takeoff roll. B. The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll. C. The greatest vortex strength is produced when the generating airplane is heavy, clean, and fast. B 5.5.7.5.1.a.1 J27 ALL During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by A. being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake. B. maintaining extra speed on takeoff and climbout. C. extending the takeoff roll and not rotating until well beyond the jet's rotation point. A 5.5.7.5.2.a.1 J27 ALL Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude? A. Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet. B. Slow your airspeed to VA and maintain altitude and course. C. Make sure you are slightly below the path of the jet and perpendicular to the course. A 5.5.7.5.3.a.1 J27 ALL To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large jet aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne? A. Past the point where the jet touched down. B. At the point where the jet touched down, or just prior to this point. C. Approximately 500 feet prior to the point where the jet touched down. A 5.5.7.5.4.a.1 J27 ALL When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? A. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown. B. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath. C. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,000 feet behind. A 5.5.7.5.5.a.1 J27 ALL With respect to vortex circulation, which is true? A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence, not vortex circulation. B. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is flying fast. C. Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vortices generated by airplanes. C 5.5.7.5.6.a.1 J27 ALL Which is true with respect to vortex circulation? A. Helicopters generate downwash turbulence only, not vortex circulation. B. The vortex strength is greatest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow. C. When vortex circulation sinks into ground effect, it tends to dissipate rapidly and offer little danger. B 5.5.7.5.7.a.1 J31 ALL As hyperventilation progresses a pilot can experience A. decreased breathing rate and depth. B. heightened awareness and feeling of well being. C. symptoms of suffocation and drowsiness. C 5.5.7.5.8.a.1 J31 ALL To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should A. continuously sweep vision field. B. concentrate on any peripheral movement detected. C. systematically focus on different segments of vision field for short intervals. C 5.5.7.5.9.a.1 J31 ALL Which is a common symptom of hyperventilation? A. Drowsiness. B. Decreased breathing rate. C. EuphoriA. sense of well-being. A 5.5.7.6.0.a.1 J31 ALL Which would most likely result in hyperventilation? A. Insufficient oxygen. B. Excessive carbon monoxide. C. Insufficient carbon dioxide. C 5.5.7.6.1.a.1 J31 ALL Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions? A. Excessive oxygen in the bloodstream. B. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain. C. Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream. B 5.5.7.6.2.a.1 J53 ALL To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should A. swallow or yawn. B. slow the breathing rate. C. increase the breathing rate. B 5.5.7.6.3.a.1 J56 ALL Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body? A. A small amount of alcohol increases vision acuity. B. An increase in altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol. C. Judgment and decision-making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol. C 5.5.7.6.4.a.1 J58 ALL Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as A. humidity decreases. B. altitude increases. C. oxygen demand increases. B 5.5.7.6.5.a.1 J62 AIR,RTC,LTA To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should A. rely on body sensations. B. increase the breathing rate. C. rely on aircraft instrument indications. C 5.5.7.6.6.a.1 L52 AIR,RTC During preflight in cold weather, crankcase breather lines should receive special attention because they are susceptible to being clogged by A. congealed oil from the crankcase. B. moisture from the outside air which has frozen. C. ice from crankcase vapors that have condensed and subsequently frozen. C 5.5.7.6.7.a.1 L52 AIR,RTC Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations? A. The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated. B. The cabin area should not be preheated with portable heaters. C. Hot air should be blown directly at the engine through the air intakes. A 5.5.7.6.8.a.1 L52 AIR If necessary to take off from a slushy runway, the freezing of landing gear mechanisms can be minimized by A. recycling the gear. B. delaying gear retraction. C. increasing the airspeed to VLE before retraction. A 5.5.7.6.9.a.1 N02 GLI What corrective action should be taken during a landing if the glider pilot makes the roundout too soon while using spoilers? A. Leave the spoilers extended and lower the nose slightly. B. Retract the spoilers and leave them retracted until after touchdown. C. Retract the spoilers until the glider begins to settle again, then extend the spoilers. A 5.5.7.7.0.a.1 N04 GLI What consideration should be given in the choice of a towplane for use in aerotows? A. L/D ratio of the glider to be towed. B. Gross weight of the glider to be towed. C. Towplane's low-wing loading and low-power loading. B 5.5.7.7.1.a.1 N20 GLI Looseness in a glider's flight control linkage or attachments could result in A. increased stalling speed. B. loss of control during an aerotow in turbulence. C. flutter while flying at near maximum speed in turbulence. C 5.5.7.7.2.a.1 N20 GLI A left side slip is used to counteract a crosswind drift during the final approach for landing. An over-the-top spin would most likely occur if the controls were used in which of the following ways? Holding the stick A. too far back and applying full right rudder. B. in the neutral position and applying full right rudder. C. too far to the left and applying full left rudder. A 5.5.7.7.3.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 48.) If a dual glider weighs 1,040 pounds and an indicated airspeed of 55 MPH is maintained, how much altitude will be lost while traveling 1 mile? A. 120 feet. B. 240 feet. C. 310 feet. B 5.5.7.7.4.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 48.) If a dual glider weighs 1,040 pounds, what is the minimum sink speed and rate of sink? A. 38 MPH and 2.6 ft/sec. B. 42 MPH and 3.1 ft/sec. C. 38 MPH and 3.6 ft/sec. B 5.5.7.7.5.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 48.) If the airspeed of a glider is increased from 54 MPH to 60 MPH, the L/D ratio would A. decrease and the rate of sink would increase. B. increase and the rate of sink would decrease. C. decrease and the rate of sink would decrease. A 5.5.7.7.6.a.1 N21 GLI Minimum sink speed is the airspeed which results in the A. least loss of altitude in a given time. B. least loss of altitude in a given distance. C. shallowest glide angle in any convective situation. A 5.5.7.7.7.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 49.) If the airspeed is 70 MPH and the sink rate is 5.5 ft/sec, what is the effective L/D ratio with respect to the ground? A. 19:1. B. 20:1. C. 21:1. A 5.5.7.7.8.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 49.) If the airspeed is 50 MPH and the sink rate is 3.2 ft/sec, what is the effective L/D ratio with respect to the ground? A. 20:1. B. 21:1. C. 23:1. C 5.5.7.7.9.a.1 N21 GLI The glider has a normal L/D ratio of 23:1 at an airspeed of 50 MPH. What would be the effective L/D ratio with respect to the ground with a 10 MPH tailwind? A. 23:1. B. 25:1. C. 27.6:1. C 5.5.7.8.0.a.1 N21 GLI If the glider has drifted a considerable distance from the airport while soaring, the best speed to use to reach the airport when flying into a headwind is the A. best glide speed. B. minimum sink speed. C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated windspeed at the glider's altitude. C 5.5.7.8.1.a.1 N21 GLI The maximum airspeed at which abrupt and full deflection of the controls would not cause structural damage to a glider is called the A. speed-to-fly. B. maneuvering speed. C. never-exceed speed. B 5.5.7.8.2.a.1 N21 GLI Which is true regarding minimum control airspeed while thermalling? Minimum control airspeed A. may coincide with minimum sink airspeed. B. is greater than minimum sink airspeed. C. never coincides with minimum sink airspeed. A 5.5.7.8.3.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 50.) Which is true when the glider is operated in the high-performance category and the dive brakes/spoilers are in the closed position? The A. design dive speed is 150 MPH. B. never-exceed speed is 150 MPH. C. design maneuvering speed is 76 MPH. B 5.5.7.8.4.a.1 N21 GLI (Refer to figure 50.) If the glider's airspeed is 70 MPH and a vertical gust of +30 ft/sec is encountered, which would most likely occur? The A. glider would momentarily stall. B. maximum load factor would be exceeded. C. glider would gain 1,800 feet in 1 minute. A 5.5.7.8.5.a.1 N21 GLI Regarding the effect of loading on glider performance, a heavily loaded glider would A. have a lower glide ratio than when lightly loaded. B. have slower forward speed than when lightly loaded. C. make better flight time on a cross-country flight between thermals than when lightly loaded. C 5.5.7.8.6.a.1 N21 GLI When flying into a strong headwind on a long final glide or a long glide back to the airport, the recommended speed to use is the A. best glide speed. B. minimum sink speed. C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated windspeed at the glider's flight altitude. C 5.5.7.8.7.a.1 N21 GLI Which procedure can be used to increase forward speed on a cross-country flight? A. Maintain minimum sink speed plus or minus one-half the estimated wind velocity. B. Use water ballast while thermals are strong and dump the water when thermals are weak. C. Use water ballast while thermals are weak and dump the water when thermals are strong. B 5.5.7.8.8.a.1 N21 GLI The reason for retaining water ballast while thermals are strong, is to A. decrease forward speed. B. decrease cruise performance. C. increase cruise performance. C 5.5.7.8.9.a.1 N21 GLI When flying into a headwind, penetrating speed is the glider's A. speed-to-fly. B. minimum sink speed. C. speed-to-fly plus half the estimated wind velocity. C 5.5.7.9.0.a.1 N21 GLI Which is true regarding the effect on a glider's performance by the addition of ballast or weight? A. The glide ratio at a given airspeed will increase. B. The heavier the glider is loaded, the less the glide ratio will be at all airspeeds. C. A higher airspeed is required to obtain the same glide ratio as when lightly loaded. C 5.5.7.9.1.a.1 N22 GLI When flying on a heading of east from one thermal to the next, the airspeed is increased to the speed-to-fly with wings level. What will the conventional magnetic compass indicate while the airspeed is increasing? A. A turn toward the south. B. A turn toward the north. C. Straight flight on a heading of 090°. B 5.5.7.9.2.a.1 N28 GLI Select the true statement concerning oxygen systems that are often installed in sailplanes. A. Most civilian aircraft oxygen systems use low-pressure cylinders for oxygen storage. B. When aviation breathing oxygen is not available, hospital or welder's oxygen serves as a good substitute. C. In case of a malfunction of the main oxygen system a bailout bottle may serve as an emergency oxygen supply. C 5.5.7.9.3.a.1 N29 GLI The spoilers should be in what position when operating in a strong wind? A. Extended during both a landing roll or ground operation. B. Retracted during both a landing roll or ground operation. C. Extended during a landing roll, but retracted during a ground operation. A 5.5.7.9.4.a.1 N29 GLI Which is true regarding the assembly of a glider for flight? A. It may be accomplished by the pilot. B. It is not required by regulations for a glider pilot to know this. C. It must be accomplished under the supervision of an FAA maintenance inspector. A 5.5.7.9.5.a.1 N30 GLI Is it good operating practice to release from a low-tow position? A. No. The towline may snap back and strike the towplane. B. No. The tow ring may strike and damage the glider after release. C. Yes. Low-tow position is the correct position for releasing from the towplane. B 5.5.7.9.6.a.1 N30 GLI To signal the glider pilot during an aerotow to release immediately, the tow pilot will A. fishtail the towplane. B. rock the towplane's wings. C. alternately raise and lower the towplane's pitch attitude. B 5.5.7.9.7.a.1 N30 GLI During an aerotow, moving from the inside to the outside of the towplane's flightpath during a turn will cause the A. towline to slacken. B. glider's airspeed to increase, resulting in a tendency to climb. C. glider's airspeed to decrease, resulting in a tendency to descend. B 5.5.7.9.8.a.1 N30 GLI During an aerotow, is it good operating practice to release from a low-tow position? A. No. The tow ring may strike and damage the glider after release. B. No. The towline may snap forward and strike the towplane after release. C. Yes. Low-tow position is the correct position for releasing from the towplane. A 5.5.7.9.9.a.1 N30 GLI During an aerotow, if slack develops in the towline, the glider pilot should correct this situation by A. making a shallow-banked coordinated turn to either side. B. increasing the glider's pitch attitude until the towline becomes taut. C. yawing the glider's nose to one side with rudder while keeping the wings level with the ailerons. C 5.5.8.0.0.a.1 N30 GLI During aerotow takeoffs in crosswind conditions, the glider starts drifting downwind after becoming airborne and before the towplane lifts off. The glider pilot should A. not correct for a crosswind during this part of the takeoff. B. crab into the wind to remain in the flightpath of the towplane. C. hold upwind rudder in order to crab into the wind and remain in the flightpath of the towplane. B 5.5.8.0.1.a.1 N30 GLI When should the wing runner raise the glider's wing to the level position in preparation for takeoff? A. When the towplane pilot fans the towplane's rudder. B. When the glider pilot is seated and has fastened the safety belt. C. After the glider pilot gives a thumbs-up signal to take up towline slack. C 5.5.8.0.2.a.1 N30 GLI During an aerotow, the sailplane moves to one side of the towplane's flightpath. This was most likely caused by A. variations in the heading of the towplane. B. entering wingtip vortices created by the towplane. C. flying the sailplane in a wing-low attitude or holding unnecessary rudder pressure. C 5.5.8.0.3.a.1 N30 GLI In which manner should the sailplane be flown while turning during an aerotow? By A. flying inside the towplane's flightpath. B. flying outside the towplane's flightpath. C. banking at the same point in space where the towplane banked and using the same degree of bank and rate of roll. C 5.5.8.0.4.a.1 N30 GLI What corrective action should the sailplane pilot take during takeoff if the towplane is still on the ground and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left? A. Crab into the wind to maintain a position directly behind the towplane. B. Establish a right wing-low drift correction to remain in the flightpath of the towplane. C. Wait until the towplane becomes airborne before attempting to establish a drift correction. A 5.5.8.0.5.a.1 N31 GLI At what point during an autotow should the glider pilot establish the maximum pitch attitude for the climb? A. Immediately after takeoff. B. 100 feet above the ground. C. 200 feet above the ground. C 5.5.8.0.6.a.1 N31 GLI When preparing for an autotow with a strong crosswind, where should the glider and towrope be placed? A. Straight behind the tow car. B. Obliquely to the line of takeoff on the upwind side of the tow car. C. Obliquely to the line of takeoff on the downwind side of the tow car. C 5.5.8.0.7.a.1 N31 GLI Which is true regarding the use of glider tow hooks? A. The use of a CG hook for auto or winch tows allows the sailplane greater altitude for a given line length. B. The use of a CG hook for aerotows allows better directional control at the start of the launch than the use of a nose hook. C. The use of a nose hook for an auto or winch launch reduces structural loading on the tail assembly compared to the use of a CG hook. A 5.5.8.0.8.a.1 N31 GLI GIVEN: Glider's max auto/winch tow speed .....66 MPH Surface wind (direct headwind).............5 MPH Wind gradient.......................................4 MPH When the glider reaches an altitude of 200 feet the auto/winch speed should be A. 42 MPH. B. 46 MPH. C. 56 MPH. A 5.5.8.0.9.a.1 N31 GLI The towrope breaks when at the steepest segment of the climb during a winch launch. To recover to a normal gliding attitude, the pilot should A. relax the back stick pressure to avoid excessive loss of altitude. B. apply forward pressure until the buffeting sound and vibration disappear. C. move the stick fully forward immediately and hold it there until the nose crosses the horizon. C 5.5.8.1.0.a.1 N31 GLI Which would cause pitch oscillations or porpoising during a winch launch? A. Excessive winch speed. B. Insufficient winch speed. C. Excessive slack in the towline. B 5.5.8.1.1.a.1 N31 GLI During an auto launch, the pitch angle of the glider should not exceed A. 10° at 50 feet, 20° at 100 feet, and 45° at 200 feet. B. 15° at 50 feet, 30° at 100 feet, and 45° at 200 feet. C. 15° at 50 feet, 20° at 100 feet, and 40° at 200 feet. B 5.5.8.1.2.a.1 N31 GLI To stop pitch oscillation during a winch launch, the pilot should A. increase the back pressure on the control stick and steepen the angle of climb. B. relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb. C. extend and retract the spoilers several times until the oscillations subside. B 5.5.8.1.3.a.1 N32 GLI What should be expected when making a downwind landing? The likelihood of A. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster airspeed at touchdown. B. overshooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown. C. undershooting the intended landing spot and a faster groundspeed at touchdown. B 5.5.8.1.4.a.1 N32 GLI What corrective action should be taken, if while thermalling at minimum sink speed in turbulent air, the left wing drops while turning to the left? A. Apply right rudder pressure to slow the rate of turn. B. Lower the nose before applying right aileron pressure. C. Apply right aileron pressure to counteract the overbanking tendency. B 5.5.8.1.5.a.1 N32 GLI A rule of thumb for flying a final approach is to maintain a speed that is A. twice the glider's stall speed, regardless of windspeed. B. twice the glider's stall speed plus half the estimated windspeed. C. 50 percent above the glider's stall speed plus half the estimated windspeed. C 5.5.8.1.6.a.1 N32 GLI To stop a ground loop to the left after landing a glider, it would be best to lower the A. right wing in order to shift the CG. B. left wing to compensate for crosswind. C. nose skid to the ground and apply wheel brake. C 5.5.8.1.7.a.1 N32 GLI In which situation is a hazardous stall more likely to occur if inadequate airspeed allowance is made for wind velocity gradient? A. During the approach to a landing. B. While thermalling at high altitudes. C. During takeoff and climb while on aerotow. A 5.5.8.1.8.a.1 N33 GLI With regard to two or more gliders flying in the same thermal, which is true? A. All turns should be to the right. B. Turns should be in the same direction as the highest glider. C. Turns should be made in the same direction as the first glider to enter the thermal. C 5.5.8.1.9.a.1 N33 GLI Which is true regarding the direction in which turns should be made during slope soaring? A. All reversing turns should be made to the left. B. All reversing turns should be made into the wind away from the slope. C. The upwind turn should be made to the left; the downwind turn should be made to the right. B 5.5.8.2.0.a.1 N33 GLI Which airspeed should be used when circling within a thermal? A. Best L/D speed. B. Maneuvering speed. C. Minimum sink speed for the angle of bank. C 5.5.8.2.1.a.1 N34 GLI Which is a recommended procedure for an off-field landing? A. A recommended landing site would be a pasture. B. Always land into the wind even if you have to land downhill on a sloping field. C. If the field slopes, it is usually best to land uphill, even with a tailwind. C 5.5.8.2.2.a.1 N34 GLI What would be a proper action or procedure to use if you are getting too low on a cross-country flight in a sailplane? A. Fly directly into the wind and make a straight-in approach at the end of the glide. B. Have a suitable landing area selected upon reaching 2,000 feet AGL, and a specific field chosen upon reaching 1,500 feet AGL. C. Continue on course until descending to 500 feet, then select a field and confine the search for lift to an area within gliding range of a downwind leg for the field you have chosen. B 5.5.8.2.3.a.1 N34 GLI What is the proper speed to fly when passing through lift with no intention to work the lift? A. Best L/D speed. B. Maximum safe speed. C. Minimum sink speed. C 5.5.8.2.4.a.1 N34 GLI What is the proper airspeed to use when flying between thermals on a cross-country flight against a headwind? A. The best L/D speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity. B. The best L/D speed decreased by one-half the estimated wind velocity. C. The minimum sink speed increased by one-half the estimated wind velocity. A 5.5.8.2.5.a.1 O01 LTA What should a pilot do if a small hole is seen in the fabric during inflation? A. Continue the inflation and make a mental note of the location of the hole for later repair. B. Instruct a ground crewmember to inspect the hole, and if under 5 inches in length, continue the inflation. C. Consult the flight manual to determine if the hole is within acceptable damage limits established for the balloon being flown. C 5.5.8.2.6.a.1 O02 LTA Propane is preferred over butane for fuel in hot air balloons because A. it has a higher boiling point. B. it has a lower boiling point. C. butane is very explosive under pressure. B 5.5.8.2.7.a.1 O02 LTA On a balloon equipped with a blast valve, the blast valve is used for A. climbs only. B. emergencies only. C. control of altitude. C 5.5.8.2.8.a.1 O02 LTA It may be possible to make changes in the direction of flight in a hot air balloon by A. using the maneuvering vent. B. operating at different flight altitudes. C. flying a constant atmospheric pressure gradient. B 5.5.8.2.9.a.1 O03 LTA Regarding lift as developed by a hot air balloon, which is true? A. The higher the temperature of the ambient air, the greater the lift for any given envelope temperature. B. The greater the difference between the temperature of the ambient air and the envelope air, the greater the lift. C. The smaller the difference between the temperature of the ambient air and the envelope air, the greater the lift. B 5.5.8.3.0.a.1 O05 LTA What causes false lift which sometimes occurs during launch procedures? A. Closing the maneuvering vent too rapidly. B. Excessive temperature within the envelope. C. Venturi effect of the wind on the envelope. C 5.5.8.3.1.a.1 O05 LTA The lifting forces which act on a hot air balloon are primarily the result of the interior air A. pressure being greater than ambient pressure. B. temperature being less than ambient temperature. C. temperature being greater than ambient temperature. C 5.5.8.3.2.a.1 O05 LTA While in flight, ice begins forming on the outside of the fuel tank in use. This would most likely be caused by A. water in the fuel. B. a leak in the fuel line. C. vaporized fuel instead of liquid fuel being drawn from the tank into the main burner. C 5.5.8.3.3.a.1 O05 LTA If ample fuel is available, within which temperature range will propane fuel vaporize sufficiently to provide enough fuel pressure for burner operation during flight? A. 0 °F to 30 °F. B. 10 °F to 30 °F. C. 30 °F to 90 °F. C 5.5.8.3.4.a.1 O05 LTA When landing a free balloon, what should the occupant(s) do to minimize landing shock? A. Be seated on the floor of the basket. B. Stand back-to-back and hold onto the load ring. C. Stand with knees slightly bent facing the direction of movement. C 5.5.8.3.5.a.1 O05 LTA One means of vertical control on a gas balloon is A. by using the rip panel rope. B. valving gas or releasing ballast. C. opening and closing the appendix. B 5.5.8.3.6.a.1 O05 LTA To perform a normal descent in a gas balloon, it is necessary to A. valve air. B. valve gas. C. release ballast. B 5.5.8.3.7.a.1 O05 LTA What would cause a gas balloon to start a descent if a cold air mass is encountered and the envelope becomes cooled? A. The expansion of the gas. B. The contraction of the gas. C. A barometric pressure differential. B 5.5.8.3.8.a.1 O06 LTA If a balloon inadvertently descends into stratus clouds and is shielded from the Sun, and if no corrections are made, one can expect to descend A. more slowly. B. more rapidly. C. at an unchanged rate. B 5.5.8.3.9.a.1 O06 LTA What action is most appropriate when an envelope overtemperature condition occurs? A. Turn the main burner OFF. B. Land as soon as practical. C. Throw all unnecessary equipment overboard. B 5.5.8.4.0.a.1 O21 LTA Which is the proper way to detect a fuel leak? A. Sight. B. Use of smell and sound. C. Check fuel pressure gauge. B 5.5.8.4.1.a.1 O21 LTA What is the weight of propane? A. 4.2 pounds per gallon. B. 6.0 pounds per gallon. C. 7.5 pounds per gallon. A 5.5.8.4.2.a.1 O21 LTA What effect, if any, does ambient temperature have on propane tank pressure? A. It has no effect. B. As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure decreases. C. As temperature decreases, propane tank pressure increases. B 5.5.8.4.3.a.1 O22 LTA Why is it considered a good practice to blast the burner after changing fuel tanks? A. To check for fuel line leaks. B. It creates an immediate source of lift. C. To ensure the new tank is functioning properly. C 5.5.8.4.4.a.1 O22 LTA For what reason is methanol added to the propane fuel of hot air balloons? A. As a fire retardant. B. As an anti-icing additive. C. To reduce the temperature. B 5.5.8.4.5.a.1 O23 LTA To respond to a small leak around the stem of a Rego blast valve in a single-burner system balloon, one should A. turn off the fuel system and make an immediate landing. B. continue operating the blast valve making very small quick blasts until a good landing field appears. C. continue operating the blast valve, making long infrequent blasts and opening the handle slightly to reduce leakage until a good landing field appears. X/A 5.5.8.4.6.a.1 O23 LTA Which action would be appropriate if a small leak develops around the stem of the tank valve, and no other tanks have sufficient fuel to reach a suitable landing field? A. Warm the tank valve leak with your bare hand. B. Turn the leaking tank handle to the full-open position. C. Turn off the tank, then slowly reopen to reseat the seal. B 5.5.8.4.7.a.1 O23 LTA Why should propane lines be bled after use? A. Fire may result from spontaneous combustion. B. The propane may expand and rupture the lines. C. If the temperature is below freezing, the propane may freeze. B 5.5.8.4.8.a.1 O26 LTA The purpose of the preheating coil as used in hot air balloons is to A. prevent ice from forming in the fuel lines. B. warm the fuel tanks for more efficient fuel flow. C. vaporize the fuel for more efficient burner operation. C 5.5.8.4.9.a.1 O26 LTA The best way to determine burner BTU availability is the A. burner sound. B. tank quantity. C. fuel pressure gauge. C 5.5.8.5.0.a.1 O30 LTA The practice of allowing the ground crew to lift the balloon into the air is A. a safe way to reduce stress on the envelope. B. unsafe because it can lead to a sudden landing at an inopportune site just after lift-off. C. considered to be a good operating practice when obstacles must be cleared shortly after lift-off. B 5.5.8.5.1.a.1 O30 LTA Why is false lift dangerous? A. Pilots are not aware of its effect until the burner sound changes. B. To commence a descent, the venting of air will nearly collapse the envelope. C. When the balloon's horizontal speed reaches the windspeed, the balloon could descend into obstructions downwind. C 5.5.8.5.2.a.1 O30 LTA If you are over a heavily-wooded area with no open fields in the vicinity and have only about 10 minutes of fuel remaining, you should A. stay low and keep flying in hope that you will find an open field. B. climb as high as possible to see where the nearest landing field is. C. land in the trees while you have sufficient fuel for a controlled landing. C 5.5.8.5.3.a.1 O30 LTA Which precaution should be exercised if confronted with the necessity of having to land when the air is turbulent? A. Land in the center of the largest available field. B. Throw propane equipment overboard immediately prior to touchdown. C. Land in the trees to absorb shock forces, thus cushioning the landing. A 5.5.8.5.4.a.1 O30 LTA False lift occurs whenever a balloon A. ascends rapidly. B. ascends due to solar assistance. C. ascends into air moving faster than the air below. C 5.5.8.5.5.a.1 O30 LTA What is the relationship of false lift to the wind? False lift A. exists only if the surface winds are calm. B. increases if the vertical velocity of the balloon increases. C. decreases as the wind accelerates the balloon to the same speed as the wind. C 5.5.8.5.6.a.1 O30 LTA The weigh-off procedure is useful because the A. pilot can adjust the altimeter to the correct setting. B. ground crew can assure that downwind obstacles are cleared. C. pilot will learn what the equilibrium conditions are prior to being committed to fly. C 5.5.8.5.7.a.1 O30 LTA One characteristic of nylon rope is that it A. is flexible. B. does not stretch. C. splinters easily. A 5.5.8.5.8.a.1 O30 LTA Why is nylon rope good for tethering a balloon? A. It does not stretch under tension. B. It is not flexible and therefore can withstand greater tension without breaking. C. It stretches under tension, but recovers to normal size when tension is removed, giving it excellent shock absorbing qualities. C 5.5.8.5.9.a.1 O30 LTA One advantage nylon rope has over manila rope is that it A. will not stretch. B. is nearly three times as strong. C. does not tend to snap back if it breaks. B 5.5.8.6.0.a.1 O30 LTA A pilot should be aware that drag ropes constructed of hemp or nylon A. should be a maximum of 100 feet long and used only in gas balloons. B. can be considered safe because they will not conduct electricity. C. can conduct electricity when contacting powerlines carrying 600 volts or more current if they are not clean and dry. C 5.5.8.6.1.a.1 O30 LTA If powerlines become a factor during a balloon flight, a pilot should know that A. it is safer to contact the lines than chance ripping. B. contact with powerlines creates no great hazard for a balloon. C. it is better to chance ripping at 25 feet above the ground than contacting the lines. C 5.5.8.6.2.a.1 O30 LTA The windspeed is such that it is necessary to deflate the envelope as rapidly as possible during a landing. When should the deflation port (rip panel) be opened? A. Prior to ground contact. B. The instant the gondola contacts the surface. C. As the balloon skips off the surface the first time and the last of the ballast has been discharged. A 5.5.8.6.3.a.1 O30 LTA The term ``to weigh off'' as used in ballooning means to determine the A. standard weight and balance of the balloon. B. static equilibrium of the balloon as loaded for flight. C. amount of gas required for an ascent to a preselected altitude. B 5.5.8.6.4.a.1 P01 LTA Superheat is a term used to describe the condition which exists A. when the surrounding air is at least 10° warmer than the gas in the envelope. B. when the Sun heats the envelope surface to a temperature at least 10° greater than the surrounding air. C. relative to the difference in temperature between the gas in the envelope and the surrounding air caused by the Sun. C 5.5.8.6.5.a.1 P01 LTA How does the pilot know when pressure height has been reached? Liquid in the gas A. and air manometers will fall below the normal level. B. manometer will fall and the liquid in the air manometer will rise above normal levels. C. manometer will rise and the liquid in the air manometer will fall below normal levels. C 5.5.8.6.6.a.1 P01 LTA The ballonet volume of an airship envelope with respect to the total gas volume is approximately A. 15 percent. B. 25 percent. C. 30 percent. B 5.5.8.6.7.a.1 P01 LTA The pressure height with any airship is that height at which A. both ballonets are empty. B. both ballonets are inflated. C. gas pressure is 3 inches of water. A 5.5.8.6.8.a.1 P03 LTA If both engines fail while en route, an airship should be A. brought to a condition of equilibrium as soon as possible and free-ballooned. B. trimmed nose-heavy to use the airship's negative dynamic lift to fly the airship down to the landing site. C. trimmed nose-light to use the airship's positive dynamic lift to control the angle and rate of descent to the landing site. A 5.5.8.6.9.a.1 P04 LTA If an airship in flight is either light or heavy, the unbalanced condition must be overcome A. by valving air. B. aerodynamically. C. by releasing ballast. B 5.5.8.7.0.a.1 P04 LTA Maximum headway in an airship is possible only under which condition? A. Slightly nosedown. B. Slightly tail down. C. Flying in equilibrium. C 5.5.8.7.1.a.1 P04 LTA To accomplish maximum headway, the airship must be kept A. at equilibrium. B. heavy and flown dynamically positive. C. heavy by the bow and light by the stern. A 5.5.8.7.2.a.1 P05 LTA Damper valves should normally be kept closed during a maximum rate climb to altitude because any air forced into the system would A. decrease the volume of gas within the envelope. B. decrease the purity of the gas within the envelope. C. increase the amount of air to be exhausted, resulting in a lower rate of ascent. C 5.5.8.7.3.a.1 P05 LTA When checking gas pressure (pressure height) of an airship during a climb, the air damper valves should be A. opened. B. closed. C. opened aft and closed forward. B 5.5.8.7.4.a.1 P11 LTA Which take-off procedure is considered to be most hazardous? A. Failing to apply full engine power properly on all takeoffs, regardless of wind. B. Maintaining only 50 percent of the maximum permissible positive angle of inclination. C. Maintaining a negative angle of inclination during takeoff after elevator response is adequate for controllability. C 5.5.8.7.5.a.1 P11 LTA The purpose of a ground weigh-off is to determine the A. useful lift of the airship. B. gross weight of the airship. C. static condition of the airship and the condition of trim. C 5.5.8.7.6.a.1 P11 LTA When operating an airship with the ballonet air valve in the automatic forward position, the aft valve locks should not be engaged with either after-damper open because A. ballonet overinflation and rupture may occur. B. the aircraft will enter an excessive bow-high attitude. C. the aircraft will enter an excessive stern-high attitude. B 5.5.8.7.7.a.1 P11 LTA Which action is necessary to perform a normal descent in an airship? A. Valve gas. B. Valve air. C. Take air into the aft ballonets. A 5.5.8.7.8.a.1 P11 LTA To land an airship that is 250 pounds heavy when the wind is calm, the best landing can usually be made if the airship is A. in trim. B. nose-heavy approximately 20°. C. tail-heavy approximately 20°. C 5.5.8.7.9.a.1 P11 LTA A heavy airship flying dynamically with air ballasted forward to overcome a climbing tendency and slowed down for a weigh-off in the air prior to landing, will be very bow heavy. This condition must be corrected prior to landing by A. ballasting air aft. B. discharging forward ballast. C. dumping fuel from the forward tanks. A 5.5.8.8.0.a.1 P11 LTA If an airship should experience failure of both engines during flight and neither engine can be restarted, what initial immediate action must the pilot take? A. Immediate preparations to operate the airship as a free balloon are necessary. B. The airship must be driven down to a landing before control and envelope shape are lost. C. The emergency auxiliary power unit must be started for electrical power to the airscoop blowers so that ballonet inflation can be maintained. A 5.5.8.8.1.a.1 P12 LTA Critical factors affecting the flight characteristics and controllability of an airship are A. airspeed and power. B. static and dynamic trim. C. temperature and atmospheric density. A 6.5.8.8.2.a.1 H20 LTA A change in behavior as a result of experience can be defined as A. learning. B. knowledge. C. understanding. A 6.5.8.8.3.a.1 H20 LTA In levels of learning, what are the steps of progression? A. Application, understanding, rote, and correlation. B. Rote, understanding, application, and correlation. C. Correlation, rote, understanding, and application. B 6.5.8.8.4.a.1 H20 LTA In the learning process, fear or the element of threat will A. inspire the student to improve. B. narrow the student's perceptual field. C. decrease the rate of associative reactions. B 6.5.8.8.5.a.1 H20 LTA What is the basis of all learning? A. Insight. B. Perception. C. Motivation. B 6.5.8.8.6.a.1 H20 LTA While material is being taught, students may be learning other things as well. What is the additional learning called? A. Residual learning. B. Conceptual learning. C. Incidental learning. C 6.5.8.8.7.a.1 H20 LTA Students learn best when they are willing to learn. This feature of LAWS OF LEARNING is referred to as the law of A. recency. B. readiness. C. willingness. B 6.5.8.8.8.a.1 H20 LTA Perceptions result when a person A. gives meaning to sensations. B. groups together bits of information. C. responds to visual cues first, then aural cues, and relates these cues to ones previously learned. A 6.5.8.8.9.a.1 H20 LTA Which is true? Motivations A. should be obvious to be useful. B. must be tangible to be effective. C. may be very subtle and difficult to identify. C 6.5.8.9.0.a.1 H20 LTA To effectively motivate students, an instructor should A. promise rewards. B. appeal to their pride and self-esteem. C. maintain pleasant personal relationships, even if necessary to lower standards. A 6.5.8.9.1.a.1 H20 LTA Motivations in the form of reproof and threats should be avoided with all but the student who is A. bored. B. discouraged. C. overconfident. C 6.5.8.9.2.a.1 H20 LTA The level of learning at which a person can repeat something without understanding is called A. rote learning. B. basic learning. C. random learning. A 6.5.8.9.3.a.1 H20 LTA The level of learning at which the student becomes able to associate an element which has been learned with other blocks of learning is called the level of A. application. B. association. C. correlation. C 6.5.8.9.4.a.1 H20 LTA To ensure proper habits and correct techniques during training, an instructor should A. never repeat subject matter already taught. B. use the ``building-block'' technique of instruction. C. introduce tasks which are difficult and challenging to the student. B 6.5.8.9.5.a.1 H21 LTA Before a student can concentrate on learning, which of these human needs must be satisfied first? A. Social needs. B. Safety needs. C. Physical needs. C 6.5.8.9.6.a.1 H21 LTA Although defense mechanisms can serve a useful purpose, they can also be a hindrance because they A. alleviate the cause of problems. B. can result in delusional behavior. C. involve self-deception and distortion of reality. C 6.5.8.9.7.a.1 H21 LTA When a student asks irrelevant questions or refuses to participate in class activities, it usually is an indication of the defense mechanism known as A. aggression. B. resignation. C. substitution. A 6.5.8.9.8.a.1 H21 LTA Taking physical or mental flight is a defense mechanism that students use when they A. want to escape from frustrating situations. B. become bewildered and lost in the advanced phase of training. C. attempt to justify actions that otherwise would be unacceptable. A 6.5.8.9.9.a.1 H21 LTA When a student uses excuses to justify inadequate performance, it is an indication of the defense mechanism known as A. aggression. B. resignation. C. rationalization. C 6.5.9.0.0.a.1 H21 LTA When students become so frustrated they no longer believe it possible to work further, they usually display which defense mechanism? A. Aggression. B. Resignation. C. Rationalization. B 6.5.9.0.1.a.1 H21 LTA A student who is daydreaming is engaging in the defense mechanism known as A. flight. B. substitution. C. rationalization. A 6.5.9.0.2.a.1 H21 LTA Which of these instructor actions would more likely result in students becoming frustrated? A. Presenting a topic or maneuver in great detail. B. Covering up instructor mistakes or bluffing when the instructor is in doubt. C. Telling the students that their work is unsatisfactory without explanation. C 6.5.9.0.3.a.1 H22 LTA The effectiveness of communication between the instructor and the student is measured by the degree of A. motivation manifested by the student. B. similarity between the idea transmitted and the idea received. C. attention the student gives to the instructor during a lesson. B 6.5.9.0.4.a.1 H22 LTA To communicate effectively, instructors must A. utilize highly organized notes. B. display an authoritarian attitude. C. display a positive, confident attitude. C 6.5.9.0.5.a.1 H22 LTA Probably the greatest single barrier to effective communication is the A. use of inaccurate statements. B. use of abstractions by the communicator. C. lack of a common core of experience between communicator and receiver. C 6.5.9.0.6.a.1 H23 LTA What is the proper sequence in which the instructor should employ the four basic steps in the teaching process? A. Explanation, demonstration, practice, and evaluation. B. Explanation, trial and practice, evaluation, and review. C. Preparation, presentation, application, and review and evaluation. C 6.5.9.0.7.a.1 H23 LTA Evaluation of student performance and accomplishment during a lesson should be based on the A. student's background and past experiences. B. objectives and goals that were established in the lesson plan. C. student's actual performance as compared to an arbitrary standard. B 6.5.9.0.8.a.1 H23 LTA To enhance a student's acceptance of further instruction, the instructor should A. keep the student informed of his/her progress. B. continually prod the student to maintain motivational levels. C. establish performance standards a little above the student's actual ability. A 6.5.9.0.9.a.1 H24 LTA The method of arranging lesson material from the simple to complex, past to present, and known to unknown, is one that A. the instructor should avoid. B. creates student thought pattern departures. C. indicates the relationship of the main points of the lesson. C 6.5.9.1.0.a.1 H24 LTA When teaching from the KNOWN to the UNKNOWN, an instructor is using the student's A. anxieties and insecurities. B. previous experiences and knowledge. C. previously held opinions, both valid and invalid. B 6.5.9.1.1.a.1 H24 LTA In developing a lesson, the instructor must logically organize explanations and demonstrations to help the student A. understand the separate items of knowledge. B. understand the relationships of the main points of the lesson. C. learn by rote so that performance of the procedure will become automatic. B 6.5.9.1.2.a.1 H24 LTA Which should be the first step in preparing a lecture? A. Organizing the material. B. Researching the subject. C. Establishing the objective and desired outcome. C 6.5.9.1.3.a.1 H24 LTA What is one advantage of a lecture? A. It provides for student participation. B. Many ideas can be presented in a short time. C. Maximum attainment in all types of learning outcomes is possible. B 6.5.9.1.4.a.1 H24 LTA In a ``guided discussion,'' lead-off questions should usually begin with A. ``why ...'' B. ``when ...'' C. ``where ...'' A 6.5.9.1.5.a.1 H24 LTA What are the essential steps in the ``demonstration/performance'' method of teaching? A. Demonstration, practice, and evaluation. B. Demonstration, student performance, and evaluation. C. Explanation, demonstration, student performance, instructor supervision, and evaluation. C 6.5.9.1.6.a.1 H25 LTA Which is true about an instructor's critique of a student's performance? A. It must be given in written form. B. It should be subjective rather than objective. C. It is a step in the learning process, not in the grading process. C 6.5.9.1.7.a.1 H25 LTA The purpose of a critique is to A. identify only the student's faults and weaknesses. B. give a delayed evaluation of the student's performance. C. provide direction and guidance to raise the level of the student's performance. C 6.5.9.1.8.a.1 H25 LTA When an instructor critiques a student, it should always be A. done in private. B. subjective rather than objective. C. conducted immediately after the student's performance. C 6.5.9.1.9.a.1 H26 LTA Proper quizzing by the instructor during a lesson can have which of these results? A. It identifies points which need emphasis. B. It encourages rote response from students. C. It permits the introduction of new material which was not covered previously. A 6.5.9.2.0.a.1 H26 LTA To be effective in oral quizzing during the conduct of a lesson, a question should A. center on only one idea. B. include a combination of where, how, and why. C. be easy for the student at that particular stage of training. A 6.5.9.2.1.a.1 H26 LTA A written test has validity when it A. yields consistent results. B. samples liberally whatever is being measured. C. actually measures what it is supposed to measure and nothing else. C 6.5.9.2.2.a.1 H26 LTA A written test which has reliability is one which A. yields consistent results. B. measures small differences in the achievement of students. C. actually measures what it is supposed to measure and nothing else. A 6.5.9.2.3.a.1 H26 LTA A written test is said to be comprehensive when it A. yields consistent results. B. includes all levels of difficulty. C. samples liberally whatever is being measured. C 6.5.9.2.4.a.1 H27 LTA Which is true concerning the use of visual aids? They A. should be used to emphasize key points in a lesson. B. ensure getting and holding the student's attention. C. should not be used to cover a subject in less time. A 6.5.9.2.5.a.1 H27 LTA Instructional aids used in the teaching/learning process should be A. self-supporting and should require no explanation. B. compatible with the learning outcomes to be achieved. C. selected prior to developing and organizing the lesson plan. B 6.5.9.2.6.a.1 H30 LTA The professional relationship between the instructor and the student should be based upon A. the need to disregard the student's personal faults, interests, or problems. B. setting the learning objectives very high so that the student is continually challenged. C. the mutual acknowledgement that they are important to each other and both are working toward the same objective. C 6.5.9.2.7.a.1 H30 LTA Which is true regarding professionalism as an instructor? A. Anything less than sincere performance destroys the effectiveness of the professional instructor. B. To achieve professionalism, actions and decisions must be limited to standard patterns and practices. C. A single definition of professionalism would encompass all of the qualifications and considerations which must be present before true professionalism can exist. A 6.5.9.2.8.a.1 H30 LTA An instructor can most effectively maintain a high level of student motivation by A. making each lesson a pleasurable experience. B. easing the standards for an apprehensive student. C. continually challenging the student to meet the highest objectives of training. A 6.5.9.2.9.a.1 H30 LTA Faulty performance due to student overconfidence should be corrected by A. high praise when no errors are made. B. increasing the standard of performance for each lesson. C. providing strong, negative evaluation at the end of each lesson. B 6.5.9.3.0.a.1 H30 LTA What should an instructor do with a student who assumes that correction of errors is unimportant? A. Invent student deficiencies. B. Try to reduce the student's overconfidence. C. Raise the standards of performance, demanding greater effort. C 6.5.9.3.1.a.1 H30 LTA What should an instructor do if a student's slow progress is due to discouragement and lack of confidence? A. Assign subgoals which can be attained more easily than the normal learning goals. B. Emphasize the negative aspects of poor performance by pointing out the serious consequences. C. Raise the performance standards so the student will gain satisfaction in meeting higher standards. A 6.5.9.3.2.a.1 H30 LTA Should an instructor be concerned about an apt student who makes very few mistakes? A. No. Some students have an innate, natural aptitude for flight. B. Yes. Faulty performance may soon appear due to student overconfidence. C. Yes. The student will lose confidence in the instructor if the instructor does not invent deficiencies in the student's performance. B 6.5.9.3.3.a.1 H30 LTA When a student correctly understands the situation and knows the correct procedure for the task, but fails to act at the proper time, the student most probably A. lacks self-confidence. B. will be unable to cope with the demands of flying. C. is handicapped by indifference or lack of interest. A 6.5.9.3.4.a.1 H30 LTA What should an instructor do if a student is suspected of not fully understanding the principles involved in a task, even though the student can correctly perform the task? A. Require the student to apply the same elements to the performance of other tasks. B. Require the student to repeat the task, as necessary, until the principles are understood. C. Repeat demonstrating the task as necessary until the student understands the principles. A 6.5.9.3.5.a.1 H30 LTA When under stress, normal individuals usually react A. with marked changes in mood on different lessons. B. with extreme overcooperation, painstaking self-control, and laughing or singing. C. by responding rapidly and exactly, often automatically, within the limits of their experience and training. B 6.5.9.3.6.a.1 H30 LTA The instructor can counteract anxiety in a student by A. treating student fear as a normal reaction. B. allowing the student to select tasks to be performed. C. continually citing the unhappy consequences of faulty performance. A 6.5.9.3.7.a.1 H30 LTA Which would most likely indicate that a student is reacting abnormally to stress? A. Thinks and acts rapidly. B. Extreme overcooperation. C. Extreme sensitivity to surroundings. B 6.5.9.3.8.a.1 H31 LTA What is the primary consideration in determining the length and frequency of flight instruction periods? A. Fatigue. B. Mental acuity. C. Physical conditioning. A 6.5.9.3.9.a.1 H31 LTA Students quickly become apathetic when they A. understand the objectives toward which they are working. B. are assigned goals that are difficult, but possible to attain. C. recognize that their instructor is poorly prepared to conduct the lesson. C 6.5.9.4.0.a.1 H32 LTA In planning any instructional activity, the instructor's first consideration should be to A. determine the overall objectives and standards. B. identify the blocks of learning which make up the overall objective. C. establish common ground between the instructor and students. A